I am confused about the following statement my lecture slides make. The context is they have just finished proving the chinese remainder theorem, and the easy chinese remainder theorem:
Finally, we note that $x$ can be represented by $(a, b)$ where $x \equiv a(\bmod n)$ and $x \equiv b \pmod m$, and given $x$ and $y$ with representations $\left(x_a, x_b\right)$ and $\left(y_a, y_b\right)$, that $x+y$ has the representation $\left(x_a+y_a, x_b+y_b\right)$. A similar observation works for multiplication, which implies that arithmetic $\pmod {mn}$ acts in the same manner as arithmetic over the pairs of numbers viewed in modulo $m$ and $n$ respectively. Thus, in addition to a bijection between these sets, this mapping between $\{0, \ldots, m n-1\}$ and $\{0, \ldots, n-1\} \times\{0, \ldots, m-1\}$ are considered isomorphic under these operations as well. This relationship extends in the same manner to a case where there are more than two relatively prime moduli. I have 3 questions here:
- what does it mean to say that arithmetic $\pmod {mn}$ is the same as arithmetic over pairs of numbers viewed in modulo $m$ and $n$ respectively? One the one hand we are dealing with pairs of numbers, on the other hand numbers not in pairs, so I am having trouble making the connection.
- What does "this mapping between $\{0, \ldots, m n-1\}$ and $\{0, \ldots, n-1\} \times\{0, \ldots, m-1\}$ are considered isomorphic under these operations as well" mean? What does this have to do with the pairwise operations being the same as $\pmod {mn}$?
- Am I correct to say that the generalization to more than 2 coprime numbers, such as $a,b,c,d$, would be that doing arithmetic in a tuple of four elements for each of these moduli is the same as doing arithmetic in $\pmod {abcd}$?