I'm trying to find closed form of this integral $$\mathcal{I} = \int_0^1 \frac{\arctan{x}}{x^2+x+1} \, \mathrm{d}x$$
I tried it by using differentiation integral sign, partial fraction but nothing seems to work. I was thinking to rewrite the denominator as $$\mathcal{I} = \int_0^1 \frac{(1-x)\arctan{x}}{1-x^3} \, \mathrm{d}x$$ And after using geometric series I got $$\mathcal{I} = \int_0^1 \left( \sum_{n=0}^\infty x^{3n} \right)(1-x)\arctan{x} \, \mathrm{d}x$$
We can interchange integral sign and summation because $x^{3n}$ is uniformly convergent in $0$ to $1$,
$$\mathcal{I} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \int_0^1(x^{3n}-x^{3n+1})\arctan{x} \, \mathrm{d}x$$
Now after doing this I am thinking I have made the problem more harder...
I feel that this integral should have a closed form as this integral has $$\int_0^1 \frac{\arctan{x}}{x^2+1} \, \mathrm{d}x = \frac{\pi^2}{32}$$
That's how I thought... Thank you very much!!