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Im learning about conditional probability and although I think I finally got the hang of it, I sometimes stumble across worded problems that make me doubt whether I’m dealing with $P(A \cap B)$ or with $P(A|B)$. To illustrate my problem I’ll use an example I find particularly confusing.

A woman has been murdered, and her husband is accused of having committed the murder. It is known that the man abused his wife repeatedly in the past, and the prosecution argues that this is important evidence pointing towards the man’s guilt. The defense attorney says that the history of abuse is irrelevant, as only 1 in 1000 men who beat their wives end up murdering them. Assume that the defense attorney’s 1 in 1000 figure is correct, and that half of men who murder their wives previously abused them. Also assume that 20% of murdered women were killed by their husbands, and that if a woman is murdered and the husband is not guilty, then there is only a 10% chance that the husband abused her. What is the probability that the man is guilty? Is the prosecution right that the abuse is important evidence in favor of guilt?

In this example, is

only 1 in 1000 men who beat their wives end up murdering them.

the probability $P(A\cap M)=1/1000$ or $P(M|A)=1/1000$? where $A$ is the event of abusing and $M$ the event of murdering. Because I could read it as “those men who also beat their wives” which inclines me towards intersection. But I could also have read it as “given that the men beat their wives, the probability of murder is 1/1000” which sounds more like conditioning.

Similarly, I’m unsure whether

half of men who murder their wives previously abused them

is talking about $P(A|M)$ or if

20% of murdered women were killed by their husbands

is an statement about $P(M \text{ by } H| M)$, murdered by husband, $H$, given wife has been murdered. I am specially confused with

if a woman is murdered and the husband is not guilty, then there is only a 10% chance that the husband abused her.

Is this statement about $P(A|M \cap H \text{ innocent})$?

How does oneself come up with a consistent line of reasoning for distinguishing conditional probabilities from intersections?

  • Why would you insert "also" in "men who beat their wives"? How could you interpret "20% of murdered women were killed by their husbands" as $P((M\ \text{by}\ H)\cap M)$? Note that anyone who is murdered by her husband is murdered, so $(M\ \text{by}\ H)\cap M=M\ \text{by}\ H$, and therefore if you choose intersection instead of a conditional you are saying that $P(M\ \text{by}\ H)=0.2$, which might be saying that $20%$ of all women have already been murdered by their husbands. I'm sure someone would like to help you with your point of confusion, but what is it exactly? – David K Aug 12 '23 at 02:17
  • Every statement appears to be a conditional probability, and you are aiming to calculate another, namely $\mathbb P(M \text{ by } H \mid M \cap A)$. You should be able to to work out the probabilities of the intersections as multiples of say $\mathbb P(M)$ and so come to an answer (which I think is slightly more than half - though I would not trust any of the defense attorney's numbers as being consistent without knowing they came from the same source, in which case that source would answer the question directly) – Henry Aug 12 '23 at 09:47
  • @DavidK that’s a fair point! – FriendlyLagrangian Aug 12 '23 at 10:16
  • @user2661923 I agree the question is closely related but it deals with solving the problem whereas I more specifically want to know why these statements are conditional and not intersections. For instance, DavidK ‘s comment illustrates why the logic for intersection would be wrong whereas the other question doesn’t go in so much detail as it’s a more general question and limits on to how to solve it, which given the correct data I can mechanically do. – FriendlyLagrangian Aug 12 '23 at 10:22

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