I have been trying to prove that $$ \int_0^\infty t e^{2t} e^{-e^{-2t}} \mathrm{d}t = \frac{-\gamma}{4} \tag{1} $$
My attempt: \begin{align*} \mathcal{I} &= \int_0^\infty t e^{2t} e^{-e^{-2t}} \, \mathrm{d}t \\ &= \frac{-1}{4} \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(y)}{y^2} e^{-y} \, \mathrm{d}y && (e^{-2t} = y) \\ &= \frac{-1}{4} \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(y)}{y^2} \left( 1 - y + \frac{y^2}{2!} - \frac{y^3}{3!} + \cdots \right) \, \mathrm{d}y \\ &= \frac{-1}{4} \bigg[\int_0^1 \frac{\ln(y)}{y^2} \, \mathrm{d}y - \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(y)}{y} \, \mathrm{d}y + \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(y)}{2!} \, \mathrm{d}y - \cdots \, \bigg] \end{align*}
But the first integral in last equation doesn't seem to converge. Other than that I can evaluate all integrals using gamma function's
$$ \int_0^1 x^n \ln^m(x) \, \mathrm{d}x = \frac{(-1)^m m!}{(n+1)^{m+1}} $$ where $m,n \in \mathbb{N}$
Please help me in proving $(1)$.
I literally have no idea that how it can be equal to $-\gamma/4$.
Thank you very much!!
EDIT: Actually it was $e^{2t}$ but I mistakenly typed $e^{-2t}$ if it was $e^{-2t}$ then it would be not this much tough.
EDIT: As @conan mentioned in the comment that integral should be $$ \int_{-\infty}^\infty t e^{2t} e^{-e^{2t}} \mathrm{d}t $$ Which is giving the required answer.