Let $X=C([0,1])$ with the $\sup$ norm and let $T: X \to X$ given by $$ Tf(t) = f(t) + \int_0^t f(s) \,\mathrm{d}s. $$ I already showed that $T$ is a bounded linear operator with $\|T\|=2$. The problem asks me to show that $T$ is injective.
What I tried was to show $\ker T = \{0\}$, which means the equation $Tf(t)=0$, or \begin{equation} \tag{1} f(t) + \int_0^t f(s) \,\mathrm{d}s = 0 \end{equation} for all $t \in [0,1]$ has a unique solution $f \equiv 0$. Differentiating both sides with respect to $t$ gives the ODE: $$ f'(t) + f(t) = 0, $$ which has a solution $f(t)=Ce^{-t}$, where $C$ is a constant. Since equation $(1)$ gives $f(0)=0$, we must have $C=0$, and equation $Tf(t)=0$ has a solution $f \equiv 0$.
However, I'm not sure how to show $f = 0$ is the unique solution to $(1)$ (or maybe it must be from the general solution to the ODE).
I wonder if differentiation can be done in this case because $f$ is only continuous, not a $C^1$ function.
Is there other way to solve this problem like assuming $Tf = Tg$ and showing $f=g$ (I was stuck on this)?
Does it have something to do with the Hahn-Banach Theorem, (I don't know the space and the operator)?
Thank you.