In textbook,the definition of invertible matrices is :$AB=BA=I$,then we say A is a inverse matrix of B.Could I define AB=I instead of $AB=BA=I$ as inverse matrix.i.e. Could we get $AB=BA=I$ from $AB=I$?(Some cases like that may be right when we talk about group.I am curious whether this situation also holds true for matrices)
Asked
Active
Viewed 33 times
0
-
"Could we get $AB=BA=I$ from $AB=I$", no because matrices are not commutative (i.e. generally $AB\neq BA$). – CroCo Jul 31 '23 at 18:57