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$$ \limsup_{n\to \infty} |\sin n|^n $$

Consider $n$ is an integer. Since $n$ is an integer, I know that $\sin n$ is never equal to $1$. But still it is unclear if the lim sup is equal to $1$ or $0$.

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    $1$ is limit point for $\sin n$. – zkutch Jul 25 '23 at 06:01
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    Does this answer your question? Sine of natural numbers – PinkyWay Jul 25 '23 at 06:46
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    It's a hard question, where does it come from ? – Cactus Jul 25 '23 at 06:48
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    $n \pmod \pi $ is dense in $[0, \pi]$. – copper.hat Jul 25 '23 at 06:53
  • I naively checked up to about 100 million with python and the limsup seems to be converging to 1. It seems that for $\limsup_{n \to \infty} |\sin(n)|^n \geq 1-10^{-m}$, we need to check all the $n$ between 1 and $10^{m}$. I don't think the answer follows straightforwardly from a density argument, but I could be wrong. – 1mdlrjcmed Jul 25 '23 at 08:09
  • What have you tried? – Hayatsu Jul 25 '23 at 09:19
  • @Invisible There is a difference. If $\sup_{n \ in \mathbb N} \sin n = 1$, this is equivalent to the existence of a subsequence $n_k$ such that $\sin(n_k) \to 1$. However, this doesn't imply that $\sin(n_k)^{n_k}$ needs to converge to $1$. If a sequence $a_n \to 1$, it is not true that $a_n^{n}$ tends to $1$. For example, $1-\frac 1n \to 1$ but $\left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)^n \to \frac 1e < 1$. Thus, the question suggested as a duplicate is certainly related, but it doesn't come close to answering the question. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Jul 25 '23 at 09:20
  • Keeping the same theme as earlier, suppose that, for some $\epsilon>0$, you can find infinitely many integers $n_1,n_2,\ldots$ such that $\sin(n_i) \geq 1-\frac{1}{n_i^{1+\epsilon}}$. Then, proceeding along this subsequence, it will be true that $\sin(n_i)^{n_i} \to 1$. I wonder if the suggested estimate is true. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Jul 25 '23 at 09:21

2 Answers2

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In this post : About the limit $\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \frac{1}{n \cdot \cos (n)} $, you will see a proof that $|\cos(n)| \leqslant \frac{3}{n}$ for infinitely many $n$ (based on the Diophantine approximation) and in this case, $|\sin(n)| = \sqrt{1 - \cos^2(n)} \geqslant \sqrt{1 - \frac{9}{n^2}}$ hence, still for infinitely many $n$, $$ |\sin(n)|^n \geqslant \left(1 - \frac{9}{n^2}\right)^{\frac{n}{2}} = \exp\left(\frac{n}{2}\ln\left(1 - \frac{9}{n^2}\right)\right) = \exp\left(-\frac{9}{2n} + \mathrm{o}\!\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\right) \rightarrow 1. $$ We deduce that $\limsup |\sin(n)|^n = 1$.

Cactus
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  • Outstanding answer, really brilliantly worked out. I'd done some sort of heuristic work in the comments, but not really followed up on it, and it's nice to see that something like that did work out. – Sarvesh Ravichandran Iyer Jul 25 '23 at 10:39
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    Actually, I've pretty lucky I found the post about the limit of $1/(n\cos(n))$ randomly and thought it could be usefull for this problem – Cactus Jul 26 '23 at 07:28
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I can give a heuristic explanation of why the result ought to be true, but I don't think this argument can be extended.

I aim to show that for a given $\epsilon > 0, \epsilon << 1$, we should expect $$\sup_{1 \leq n \leq 1/\epsilon} |\sin(n)|^{1/\epsilon} \geq 1-\epsilon.$$ Firstly, note that if $y \geq 1-\epsilon^2$, Bernoulli's inequality implies that $$y^{1/\epsilon} \geq 1-\epsilon^2 \cdot \frac{1}{\epsilon} = 1-\epsilon.$$ Now, keep in mind that $y = \sin(n)$. Apply Taylor's theorem to $\sin(x)$ at $x = \pi/2$ and conclude $$\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2} + t\right) \geq 1- \frac{t^2}{2}$$ for all $t$. We want to think of $t$ as the distance between $\pi/2$ and $n \mod \pi$, i.e., $$t = \left|\frac{\pi}{2} - (n \mod \pi)\right|.$$

We can see that if $|t| \leq \epsilon$, then $$\sin(\pi/2 + t) \geq 1 - \frac{\epsilon^2}{2} \implies |\sin(\pi/2 + t)|^{1/\epsilon} \geq 1-\epsilon.$$

Now, the question is basically how $n \mod \pi$ is distributed in $[0,\pi]$. Intuitively, if there we look through all $1 \leq n \leq 1/\epsilon$, the average spacing of these numbers in the interval $[0,\pi]$ should be $\pi/(1/\epsilon) = \pi \epsilon$. Hopefully, this means we can find an $n \mod \pi$ within $\pi \epsilon$ of $\pi/2$ for $1 \leq n \leq 1/\epsilon,$ which would roughly prove our result.

This is the case that agrees with my hastily constructed code $(\epsilon = 10^{-1}, 10^{-2}, ...,10^{-7},$ but it would probably be easier to prove something like $$\sup_{1 \leq n \leq 1/\epsilon} |\sin(n)|^{1/\epsilon} \geq 1-\epsilon^{1/2}.$$ You can follow the steps above to get a better bound with Bernoulli's inequality, ($y \geq 1-\epsilon^{3/2}$, suffices to find $|t| \leq \epsilon^{3/4}$, $t = |\pi/2 - n \mod \pi|$, average distance between numbers is $\pi \epsilon$ but only need to fit in an interval of length $2\epsilon^{3/4}$.)

At that point, you would hope to use some version of the Equidistribution Theorem that says $n \mod \pi$ is uniformly distributed in $[0,\pi]$, but this theorem doesn't actually give a rate of convergence.

1mdlrjcmed
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