Lemma. Suppose two integers, m and n, are relatively prime. Then, every integer d that divides the product mn can be written in exactly one way, d = bc, with b dividing m and c dividing n.
This is the proof given in the book :
Proof. We will show the contrapositive. That is, “P implies Q” is logically the same as “not Q implies not P.” Suppose that d divides mn. We can write d = bc and also d = b'c', with both b and b' dividing m and both c and c' dividing n. We need to show that m and n are not relatively prime. We canwrite the integer (mn)/d in two ways:
$\frac{(mn)}{d} = \frac{m}{b} \frac{n}{c} = \frac{m}{b'} \frac{n}{c'} $ .
So, cross multiplying,
$\frac{bc}{b'c'} = 1$.
Since, b is not equal to b', some prime p dividing b does not divide b' (or vice versa); it must divide c' or it won’t cancel out to give 1 on the right side. So, p divides b, which divides m, and p divides c', which divides n; so, m and n are both divisible by p. divisible by p.
My problem with the proof : Say 4 is not equal to 2 but then 2|4 (See the highlighted line in bold and italics), so shouldn't the proof explicitly say that b and b' are relatively prime but then the proof wouldn't be valid.
Am I saying something wrong here ?