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I want to prove the following:

Proposition: Let $(X,\mathcal{A},\mu)$ and $(Y, \mathcal{B}, \nu)$ be $\sigma$-finite measure spaces and let $(X\times Y , \mathcal{A} \otimes \mathcal{B} , \mathcal{\mu}\otimes \mathcal{\nu})$ be the product measure space. Further let $p \in [1, \infty) $. Then $$\overline{L^p(X) \otimes L^p(Y)} = L^p(X \times Y), $$ where the closure is with respect to the norm in $L^p(X \times Y)$.

Here $L^p(X) \otimes L^p(Y)$ is identified with a subspace of $L^p(X \times Y)$ through the natural embedding $f \otimes g \mapsto \big( (x,y) \mapsto f(x) g(y) \big) $.

I have proven the statement in the special case when $\mu$ and $\nu$ are finite (not $\sigma$-finite) and my question is:

Is my proof of the finite measure case correct and if it is, how can i adapt it to the case where the measures are $\sigma$-finite?

My proof (of the finite case): It suffices to show that $\chi_C \in \overline{L^p(X) \otimes L^p(Y)} $ for every $C \in \mathcal{A} \otimes \mathcal{B}$ with $\mu \otimes \nu (C) < \infty$. Here $\chi_C$ denotes the indicator function of the set $C$. This is because the linear combinations of such indicators are dense in $L^p(X \times Y)$.

Now assume that $\mu$ and $\nu$ are finite (and hence also $\mu \otimes \nu$), then we can use the following theorem, which is proven here:

Theorem: Let $(X,\mathcal B,\mu)$ be a finite measure space. Let $\mathcal A\subset \mathcal B$ be an algebra generating $\cal B$. Then for all $B\in\cal B$ and $\varepsilon>0$, we can find $A\in\cal A$ such that $$\mu(A\Delta B)<\varepsilon.$$

Here $\Delta$ is the symmetric difference: $A \Delta B = (A \setminus B ) \cup (B\setminus A) = (A \cup B) \setminus (A \cap B)$.

To use the theorem define $$\mathcal{E}_0 = \{ A \times B : A \in \mathcal{A}, B \in \mathcal{B} \}$$ and $$\mathcal{E} = \big \{ \bigcup_{i=1}^n C_i : C_i \in \mathcal{E}_0 , n \in \mathbb{N} \big \}.$$ Then $\mathcal{E}$ is an algebra that generates $\mathcal{A} \otimes \mathcal{B}$. Clearly the indicator functions of all elements of $\mathcal{E}_0 $ are in $L^p(X) \otimes L^p(Y)$, because they have product form and finite measure. The indicator function $\chi_E$ of every member $E$ of $ \mathcal{E}$ is also in $L^p(X) \otimes L^p(Y)$, because $E$ can be written as a finite and disjoint union of sets in $\mathcal{E}_0$ and then $\chi_E$ is just the sum of the indicator functions on these rectangle sets.

Now let $ C \in \mathcal{A} \otimes \mathcal{B}$. Then by the theorem there exist for every $\varepsilon >0$ an $E \in \mathcal{E}$ so that $ \mu \otimes \nu (C \Delta E )< \varepsilon $ and therefore $$ \| \chi_C - \chi_E \|= \| \chi_{C \Delta E} \| = \big( \mu \otimes \nu (C \Delta E ) \big)^{1/p} < \varepsilon^{1/p},$$ which concludes the proof.

My idea to extend the proof to the $\sigma$-finite case is that the $\sigma$-finite case can perhaps be reduced to the finite case by restricting the product measure space in some suitable way to make it finite. But i could not come up with a suitable restriction.

jd27
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    If your space if sigma-finite, then you can write $X=\bigcup_n E_n, Y=\bigcup_m F_m$ where $(E_n)n, (F_m)_m$ are increasing and of finite measure. Pick $f\in L^p(X\times Y)$ and set $g_k(x,y)=\chi{E_k}(x)\chi_{F_k}(y) f(x,y)$. We have $g_k\rightarrow f$ in $L^p(X\times Y)$ by dominated convergence. By the finite case you can approximate $g_k$ by linear combinations of products of indicator functions in $L^p$ and you are good to go. I leave it to you to fill in the details. – Severin Schraven Jul 18 '23 at 04:32
  • @SeverinSchraven Thanks for the proof suggestion. I managed to prove the result. I really have to remember the construction of the sequence $g_k$. I am sure it can be used in many places to transfer results from finite to $\sigma$-finite cases. – jd27 Jul 18 '23 at 08:04
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    You are very welcome. Indeed, this trick is pretty neat and allows quite often to pass from the finite to the sigma-finite case. – Severin Schraven Jul 18 '23 at 16:29
  • I think that the statement "The indicator function $\chi_E$ of every member $E$ of $\mathcal{E}$ is also in $L^p(X) \otimes L^p(Y)$" maybe not correct. Let $X=Y=\mathbb R$. Let $$ E = ({1} \times {1}) \cup ( {2} \times {2}). $$ Then $$ 1_E (x, y)= \begin{cases} 1 &\text{if} \quad (x,y) =(1, 1) , \text{ or } , (x,y) =(2, 2), \ 0 &\text{otherwise}. \end{cases} $$ I could not find $f \otimes g \in L^p(X) \otimes L^p(Y)$ such that $f \otimes g =1_E$. – Akira Aug 17 '23 at 13:21
  • @SeverinSchraven Could you please have a check on my above comment? – Akira Aug 17 '23 at 13:51
  • @Akira if i am not mistaken in your case we have $1_E = 1_{ { 1} \times { 1} } + 1_{ { 2 } \times { 2 } }$ which is in the tensor product – jd27 Aug 17 '23 at 15:42
  • @jd27 Can you give the explicitly form of the associated $f,g$? – Akira Aug 17 '23 at 15:43
  • @Akira $1_E (x,y) = 1_{ { 1 } } (x) 1_{ { 1} }(y) + 1_{ { 2 } } (x) 1_{ { 2 } } (y)$ – jd27 Aug 17 '23 at 15:46
  • @jd27 From you natual embedding $f \otimes g \mapsto \big( (x,y) \mapsto f(x) g(y) \big)$, we have $h \in L^p(X) \otimes L^p(Y)$ IFF there are $f \in L^p(X), g \in L^p(Y)$ such that $h(x, y) = f(x) g(y)$. I don't think $1_E (x, y) = 1_{ { 1 } } (x) 1_{ { 1} }(y) + 1_{ { 2 } } (x) 1_{ { 2 } } (y)$ can be written in that form. You only show that $1_E (x, y)$ can be written as the sum $f_1(x)g_1(y) + f_2(x)g_2(y)$. – Akira Aug 17 '23 at 15:52
  • @Akira the tensor product is the linear span of all elements of the form $f \otimes g$ (it is a vector space). The action on simple tensors then defines the embedding by linearity. – jd27 Aug 17 '23 at 15:52
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    @jd27 Ah I'm sorry for my misunderstanding. Now I got it. Thank you so much! – Akira Aug 17 '23 at 15:54

1 Answers1

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Using the suggestion of Severin Schraven i managed to solve the problem:

Since $(X, \mathcal{A},\mu)$ and $(Y, \mathcal{B}, \nu)$ are $\sigma$-finite there exist sequences $(E_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ and $(F_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ of increasing measurable sets each having finite measure with $X = \bigcup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} E_n$ and $Y=\bigcup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} F_n$.

Let $f \in L^p(X \times Y)$. Define a sequence $(f_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ of $L^p(X \times Y)$ functions by $f_n = \chi_{E_n \times F_n} f$. Now let $(x,y) \in X \times Y$. Then $$ \lim_{n \to \infty } \chi_{E_n \times F_n} (x,y) = \lim_{n \to \infty } \chi_{E_n} (x) \chi_{F_n} (y) =1, $$ because there exist some $m \in \mathbb{N}$ so that $x \in E_m$ and $y \in F_m$ and then the same is true for all larger $n$ as well. Therefore $f_n \to f$ pointwise. Since $|f_n| \leq |f |$ the theorem of dominated convergence gives $f_n \to f$ in $L^p$.

Let $\varepsilon>0$ and $k \in \mathbb{N}$ so that $\| f- f_k \|< \varepsilon$. Now $f_k$ is zero outside of $E_k \times F_k$.

To proceed with the proof we need the following results: For a $\sigma$-Algebra $\mathcal{A}$ on a set $X$ and $C \in \mathcal{A}$ define the restricted $\sigma$-Algebra $\mathcal{A}|_C$ on $C$ by $$ \mathcal{A}|_C = \{ A \cap C : A \in \mathcal{A} \}.$$ Now let $\mu$ be a measure on $\mathcal{A}$ then the map \begin{align} i: L^p(C, \mathcal{A}|_C, \mu ) & \longrightarrow L^p(X, \mathcal{A}, \mu ) \\ f & \longmapsto \bigg( x \mapsto \begin{cases} f(x), \quad \text{if} \ x \in C, \\ 0, \quad \text{else.} \end{cases} \bigg) \end{align} is a linear isometry, which can be easily verified on indicators and is then true for all (by density).

Now back to the proof: The measure spaces $(E_k, \mathcal{A}|_{E_k}, \mu)$ and $(F_k, \mathcal{B}|_{F_k}, \nu)$ are finite and furthermore $ \mathcal{A}|_{E_k} \otimes \mathcal{B}|_{F_k} =(\mathcal{A} \otimes \mathcal{B})|_{E_k \times F_k}$ (see here).

By the finite case there exist a $g \in L^p( E_k) \otimes L^p(F_k)$ with $\| g- f_k|_{E_k \times F_k} \|_{E_k \times F_k} < \varepsilon$. Applying $i$ gives $\|i(g) -f_k \|< \varepsilon $. Furthermore $i(g) \in L^p(X) \otimes L^p(Y)$ and $$\|f-i(g) \| = \| f -f_k + f_k - i(g) \| \leq \| f-f_k\| + \|f_k- i(g) \| < 2 \varepsilon.$$

jd27
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    Very nice proof. The only (irrelevant) detail that you could think about is that if you pick $f\in L^p(X\times Y)$ then you can (if we are pedantic) not talk about $f(x,y)$ unless you fix a representation. – Severin Schraven Jul 18 '23 at 16:34