We suppose that $\mu_1$ and $\mu_2$ are finite measures on a $\sigma$-algebra $\Sigma$ generated by the algebra $\Sigma_0$.
My question is how to prove that if $\mu_1(A) \leq \mu_2(A)$ holds for all $A$ in $\Sigma_0$, then it holds for all $A$ in $\Sigma$.