0

I was playing around with this question in my graphic calculator and noticed, that $\int_{-1}^1\sin(n\pi x)f(x)dx\to0$ for $n\to\infty$, where $f\in L^p((-1,1))$ and $1<p<\infty$. While trying to proof this I had the idea of writing $\int_{-1}^1\sin(n\pi x)f(x)dx=\sum_{i=-n}^{n-1}\int_{i/n}^{(i+1)/n}\sin(n\pi x)f(x)dx$, hoping it would simplify the question, but I can't see how this could help. Help proving or disproving this would be very appreciated.

algebrah
  • 133

0 Answers0