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Find all functions $f $: $\mathbb R^{×}$ $\to$ $\mathbb R^{×}$ that are one-to-one and onto and such that $f^{−1}(x)= 1/ f(x)$, Where $\mathbb R^{×}=\mathbb R-${0}

My approach:=

At first I have consider $f(x)=x$ and $f(x)=1/x$ then this does not satisfy $f^{−1}(x)= 1/ f(x)$

Now I am unable to construct such functions.

Anne Bauval
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SUJAN DAS
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  • The condition can also be expressed as $f\left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)=x$ and $\ln(f^{-1}(x)) = - \ln(f(x))$. And if we consider a simple function of $g(x) = x + a$, we get the corresponding condition as $g^{-1}(x) = g(x) - 2a$. Maybe that will gives ideas for generating general functions? – Tony Mathew Jun 28 '23 at 07:06
  • I tried assuming a general power function $f(x) = x^p$, but got $p = i, -i \implies f(x) = e^{i \ln x}$, which is complex-valued for general $x$. So simple power function won't work. – Tony Mathew Jun 28 '23 at 07:19
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    If $f^{-1}(x) = 1/f(x)$, then $x = f^{-1}(f(x)) = 1/f(f(x))$, so this problem amounts to finding functions $f$ with $f(f(x)) = 1/x$. This seems relevant but probably not helpful, since you're working over an infinite set. – Annie Carter Jun 28 '23 at 07:27
  • Are there any constraints with respect to continuity? – Brian Tung Jun 28 '23 at 07:27
  • More on "functional square roots." – Annie Carter Jun 28 '23 at 07:35
  • Updated my answer, Please see if its useful. – Balaji sb Jun 28 '23 at 09:25
  • Suggested title edit: "Find all bijections of non-zero real numbers whose inverse is its reciprocal." What I love about this question is that it is essentially asking for which functions the superscript $-1$ notation is unambiguous. – Annie Carter Jun 30 '23 at 02:53
  • @AnnieCarter Good idea but doesn't this mixture of plural and singular sound strange? – Anne Bauval Jun 30 '23 at 04:31
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    @AnneBauval Yes, it does. I was going for something a little more descriptive than the present title. Maybe "Find every bijection of non-zero real numbers whose inverse is its reciprocal." – Annie Carter Jul 01 '23 at 12:37

3 Answers3

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Partial answer that gives a very large family of solutions:

For any subset $A \subset ]0, +\infty[$, let's denote $A^{-1} = \left\lbrace \dfrac{1}{x} \mid x \in A \right\rbrace$.

Let $A$ be any subset of $]0, +\infty[$ satisfying the two following conditions : $$A \cap A^{-1} = \emptyset \quad \text{and} \quad A \cup A^{-1} = ]0, +\infty[ \setminus \lbrace 1 \rbrace$$

Let $\sigma : A \rightarrow A^{-1}$ be any bijection between $A$ and $A^{-1}$, and let $g : ]0, +\infty[ \rightarrow ]0, +\infty[$ be the bijection defined by

$$\forall x > 0, \quad g(x)= \left\lbrace \begin{array}{cl} \sigma(x) & \text{if } x \in A \\ \dfrac{1}{\sigma(1/x)} &\text{if } x \in A^{-1} \\ 1 & \text{if } x=1\end{array} \right.$$

Then the function $$f : x \longmapsto \left\lbrace \begin{array}{cc} -g(x) & \text{if } x>0 \\ \dfrac{1}{g^{-1}(-x)}& \text{if } x<0\end{array}\right.$$

satisfies the condition.


For example, if $A = ]1, +\infty[$, and $\sigma : x \mapsto \dfrac{1}{x}$, one obtains the function $$f : x \longmapsto \left\lbrace \begin{array}{cc} -\dfrac{1}{x} & \text{if } x>0 \\ -x& \text{if } x<0\end{array}\right.$$

which is a solution.

TheSilverDoe
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  • I thought Bourbaki notation for open intervals was dead - it certainly should be. – 1729taxi Jun 28 '23 at 09:35
  • Hi .. we need to satisfy $f(x) f^{-1}(x) = f(x) f(1/x) = 1$. In your general solution for $x>0$, we get $f(x)f(1/x) = g(x)g(1/x) = 1$. Not every $g$ will satisfy this. In my answer, i deduced a similar looking functions based on signs in your specific example. Please take a look. Please clarify in your answer, if needed. – Balaji sb Jun 28 '23 at 09:50
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    @1729taxi In France, Bourbaki is God and we all are his prophets. – TheSilverDoe Jun 28 '23 at 09:53
  • It is a consequence $f^{-1}(x) = f(1/x)$ is a consequence of $f^{-1}(x) = 1/f(x)$. Please see my answer for this. – Balaji sb Jun 28 '23 at 09:57
  • Using $f(f(x)) = 1/x$, we get $f(f(f(x))) = 1/f(x)$ and using same we get $f(f(f(x))) = f(1/x)$. Just combine/group the composition in different ways – Balaji sb Jun 28 '23 at 10:00
  • @Balajisb Ok, I see what I missed. I edited. – TheSilverDoe Jun 28 '23 at 11:00
  • Nice definition +1. – Balaji sb Jun 28 '23 at 11:08
  • @TheSilverDoe Still a horrible notation that is either not recognised or totally ignored in most of the world. (a,b) is a hell of a lot better than ]a,b[ – 1729taxi Jun 28 '23 at 11:32
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    @1729taxi Thanks for your enlightened opinion, but I write maths as I want. – TheSilverDoe Jun 28 '23 at 11:36
  • @TheSilverDoe Calm down - if you want to write poorly then that is, of course, your choice. But the person you were replying to is obviously at an early stage of their maths development and answering in an archaic and poorly legible notation is not exactly helpful. – 1729taxi Jun 28 '23 at 12:35
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    @1729taxi: I agree with your choice of notation, for what it's worth. But "Calm down" seems like possibly not the best way to convince someone. (Especially as it doesn't sound to me at least that they raised their "voice" too much.) – Brian Tung Jun 28 '23 at 15:22
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    Incidentally, I had no idea that notation came from Bourbaki. Interesting! – Brian Tung Jun 28 '23 at 15:51
  • I think you get the full family of solutions if you let $A, B \subseteq \mathbb{R} \setminus {0, 1, -1}$ be any uncountable sets such that ${A, B, A^{-1}, B^{-1}}$ partition $\mathbb{R} \setminus {0, 1, -1}$. Let $g\colon A \to B$ be any bijection, and define $f$ so that it induces cycles $x \mapsto g(x) \mapsto 1/x \mapsto 1/g(x)$ (and $1 \mapsto \pm 1$, $-1 \mapsto \mp 1$). My $A, B$ are your $A, -A^{-1}$, but I'm not restricting $A$ to positive numbers. – Annie Carter Jun 30 '23 at 02:50
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First, if $f^{-1}(x) = 1/f(x)$, then we have $$x = f^{-1}(f(x)) = 1/f(f(x)),$$ which is equivalent to requiring $f(f(x)) = 1/x$. This means that every value of $x$ is periodic, belonging to a cycle of the form $$a \mapsto b \mapsto 1/a \mapsto 1/b \mapsto a.$$

Now if $a = \pm 1$, then $a = 1/a$ so we must have $1/b = f(1/a) = f(a) = b$. So such an $f$ will satisfy $f(1) = \pm 1$ and $f(-1) = \mp 1$. It then remains to describe $f(x)$ for $x \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \{0, 1, -1\}$.

Since $x \neq 1/x$ for $x \neq \pm 1$, every element of $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{0, 1, -1\}$ occurs in a 4-cycle $\{a, b, 1/a, 1/b\}$. So let $A$ and $B$ be any uncountable subsets of $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{0, 1, -1\}$ such that the four sets $A$, $B$, $A^{-1}$, and $B^{-1}$ partition $\mathbb{R}\setminus\{0, 1, -1\}$, where $$A^{-1} = \{1/x\ |\ x \in A\},$$ and similarly for $B^{-1}$. Let $g\colon A \to B$ be any bijection. Having fixed $f(1) = c = \pm 1$, define $f \colon \mathbb{R}^\times \to \mathbb{R}^\times$ by $$ f(x) = \begin{cases} c & \text{if $x = 1$} \\ -c & \text{if $x = -1$} \\ g(x) & \text{if $x \in A$} \\ 1/g^{-1}(x) & \text{if $x \in B$} \\ 1/g(1/x) & \text{if $x \in A^{-1}$} \\ g^{-1}(1/x) & \text{if $x \in B^{-1}$} \\ \end{cases} $$

An an example, you could take $A = (1, \infty)$, $B = (-\infty, -1)$, and $g(x) = -x$.

Note that each such tuple $(c, A, B, g)$ will give a suitable function $f$, and each such function $f$ arises from a tuple of this form (by choosing for each 4-cycle a "first" element $a$, and declaring $A$ to be the set of these elements), but multiple tuples may correspond to the same function.

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If $$f(x) = y$$ then, $$f^{-1}(y) = x = 1/f(y) \implies f(f(x)) = 1/x$$

$$f(f(x)) = 1/x \implies f(f(f(x))) = 1/f(x) = f(1/x) $$

Hence $$f(x) f(1/x) = 1 = f(x) f^{-1}(x)$$ Hence $$f^{-1}(x) = f(1/x)$$

$$f(f^{-1}(x)) = x \implies f(f(1/x)) = x$$

So functions such that $f(f(1/x)) = x$ and $f(x)f(1/x) = 1$ is possible.

For $x>0$, let $$x = e^y \implies f(e^y) f(e^{-y}) = 1 \implies g(y)g(-y) = 1$$ where $g(y) = f(e^y)$.

So any solution is of the form: $$g(y)g(-y) = 1$$.

An example: $$g(y) = e^{-h(y)}$$ where $h(y)$ is any odd function. So now, $$f(e^y) = e^{-h(y)} \implies f(x) = e^{-h(\ln(x))}.$$

Define: $$For \ x>0, f(x) = -e^{h(\ln(|x|))}$$. $$For \ x<0, f(x) = e^{-h(\ln(|x|))}$$.

Now check $$f(f(x)) = 1/x \implies f(f(x)) = e^{-h(\ln(|e^{h(\ln(x))}|))} = e^{-h(h(\ln(x)))} = 1/x$$ Hence $$h(h(\ln(x))) = \ln(x)$$

So any odd function of the form $h(h(y)) = y$ will work in:

$$For \ x>0, f(x) = -e^{h(\ln(|x|))}$$. $$For \ x<0, f(x) = e^{-h(\ln(|x|))}$$.

The following are atleast possible: $h(y) = y$, $h(y) = -y$ ,$h(y) = 1/y$,$h(y) = -1/y$.

Balaji sb
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