I am well aware there are many proofs out there which address this result. However, my question is regarding the subtlety of one of the proofs. The proof of interest is the following:
Let $G$ be any finite multiplicative subgroup of field $F$. Then let $\epsilon$ be the exponent of $G$. For any $x \in G$, we have $x ^ \epsilon = 1$. Since this equation has at most $\epsilon$ roots, $G$ has at most $\epsilon$ elements (i.e. $|G|≤\epsilon$). And for any finite group, $\epsilon≤|G|$. Therefore, $|G|=\epsilon$. We then use the known result that any finite abelian group ($G$) will contain an element of order $\epsilon$ to arrive at our final result.
My question is: why are we able to deduce that there are at most $\epsilon$ roots in the equation? The counter-example I can think of is the Klein-4 group where there are 3 roots with order 2.