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Let $p, q, r$ be distinct primes,
let $n = pqr$, and
let $m = (p − 1)(q − 1)(r − 1).$

Show that for any $a\in \mathbb Z$ and $h\in \mathbb N$, we have
$(h\equiv 1\mod m)$ implies $(a^h\equiv a \mod n).$

I know I need to approach this with Fermat's Little Theorem, but am not sure what to do.

Anne Bauval
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Robin
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