Let $p, q, r$ be distinct primes,
let $n = pqr$, and
let $m = (p − 1)(q − 1)(r − 1).$
Show that for any $a\in \mathbb Z$ and $h\in \mathbb N$, we have
$(h\equiv 1\mod m)$ implies $(a^h\equiv a \mod n).$
I know I need to approach this with Fermat's Little Theorem, but am not sure what to do.
$a^ h ≡a(modp)$, $a ^ h≡a(modq)$, $a^ h ≡a(modr)$,
– Robin Jun 21 '23 at 15:39