This question Concerns a certain integral $$f(p)=\int_0^1\frac{x^p(1-x)^p}{1+x^2}\mathrm dx$$ Which, as proven by Calvin Khor, has the property that $f(4k)-4^{k-1}(-1)^k\pi\in\Bbb Q$ when $k\in\mathbb N$.
When I was investigating this question, I made a typo (switching the places of the "$)$" and the "${}^p$") when inputting the integral into Mathematica, and instead inputted the integral $$g(p)=\int_0^1\frac{x^p(1-x^p)}{1+x^2}\mathrm dx$$ However, rather unexpectedly, this appears to have the same property as well, with my Mathematica spitting out $$g(4\cdot 1)=\frac{2}{35} \\ g(4\cdot 2)=\frac{196}{6~435} \\ g(4\cdot 3)=\frac{208~786}{10~140~585} \\ g(4\cdot 4)=\frac{489~772~744}{31~556~720~475} \\ \text{etc}.$$
My question is simple - can someone explain why?