The series is $$\sum_{k=1}^\infty (-1)^k\left[ k\ln\left(\frac{k^4+2k^3+k^2}{k^4+2k^3+3k^2+2k+2}\right)+\ln\left(\frac{k^2+2k+1}{k^2+1}\right) \right] $$ You won't believe it: this has a closed form! It's the beautiful $$4\coth^{-1}(e^\pi)$$ and Wolfram agrees.
By the way, I tried to prove it: the arguments of the $\ln$'s all factor, and with lots of simplifications the summand inside the brackets reduces to $$[\ 2k\ln(k)+2(k+1)\ln(k+1)-(k+1)\ln(k^2+1)-k\ln(k^2+2k+2)\ ] $$ With this new representation and some struggle (it's not difficult, just some algebraic manipulations), I managed to equate the original sum to the sum $$\sum_{k=1}^\infty (-1)^k\left[\ -2k \tanh^{-1}\left(\frac{k+1}{k^2+k+1}\right)- (k+1)\ln\left(\frac{k^2+1}{(k+1)^2}\right) \right] $$ but from here, I couldn't proceed any further. At this point, I even think this made it only worse.
In addition, notice that $$4\coth^{-1}(e^\pi)=2\ln\left(\frac{e^\pi+1}{e^\pi-1}\right)=2\ln\left(\coth\left(\frac\pi2\right) \right)$$
which follows just from the definition of inverse $\coth$, and maybe this is a bit easier to work with.
If anyone has any idea on how to attack this monster, or comes up with a full solution, please share, I look forward to read it.