I'm aware that a semantically complete theory can be undecidable. (I believe it's because only logically valid sentences need be provable for a theory to be semantically complete.)
But is it possible for a syntactically/negation complete theory to be undecidable? And do "syntactically complete" and "negation complete" mean the same thing?
I've heard that:
Any consistent, negation-complete, effectively axiomatized formal theory T is decidable.
So for a negation complete theory to be undecidable, it'd have to be either inconsistent or not effectively axiomatized. But I have no idea how a theory could be negation-complete without those two other criteria in the first place.