I was wondering if this was true. My logic was:
- At x=0, $e^{x}$ is always greater than $x^{k}$, for $k \geq 1$.
- The kth derivative of $e^{x}$ is $e^{x}$.
- The kth derivative of $x^{k}$ is 1.
- For $x \geq 1$, the kth derivative of $e^{x}$ will be greater than the kth derivative of $x^{k}$.
- Therefore, the (k-1)th derivative of $e^{x}$ will eventually be greater than the (k-1)th derivative of $x^{k}$.
- Thus, the same logic applies to the (k-2)th derivative of $e^{x}$ eventually being greater than the (k-2)th derivative of $x^{k}$.
- This pattern goes on until the 1st derivative of $e^{x}$ is greater than the 1st derivative of $x^{k}$, meaning that $e^{x}$ will eventually surpass $x^{k}$, proving that the limit holds.
Is my reasoning correct?
Thanks in advance!