Let $I=\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin^2{(x\sin x)}}{x^2}dx$. Prove that $I=1$.
Desmos shows that $\sum\limits_{k=0}^{100}\int_{k\pi}^{(k+1)\pi}\frac{\sin^2(x\sin{x})}{x^2}dx=0.9984\dots$ and $\sum\limits_{k=0}^{10000}\int_{k\pi}^{(k+1)\pi}\frac{\sin^2(x\sin{x})}{x^2}dx=0.999987\dots$.
So I think it's a safe bet that $I=1$.
Context
I recently learned that $\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin{(x\sin{x})}}{x^2}dx=\pi/2$. On a whim, I squared the numerator, and then to my surprise this new integral $\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin^2{(x\sin x)}}{x^2}dx$ seems to also have a closed form - in fact $1$, the simplest closed form of all.
My attempt
There are lots of ways to show that $\int_0^\infty\frac{\sin^2 x}{x^2} dx=\pi/2$. I've been trying to apply these to $I$. For example I tried to use integration by parts, but the fact that $I$ has sine within sine makes things difficult.