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I can't deduce the $\color{blue}\impliedby$ of the 3 blue biconditionals below. How do I explicitly wrest or wring out the red functions in terms of x, from the 1 or 2 integers on the RHS?

Doubtless, I know that the RHS's roots satisfy the LHS! For example, for the first equation, I know $-2 + 3 \equiv \color{red}{(-2 + 1)^2}, 1 + 3 \equiv \color{red}{(3 + 1)^2}$. But it doesn't suffice to evaluate functions with 1 or 2 integers, because this merely verifies the $\color{blue}\impliedby$ for merely 2 integers of $x$! We need to prove the $\color{blue}\impliedby \forall \, x$. Hence our conclusion must express the red functions in terms of $x$!

  1. $x+3=\color{red}{(x+1)^2} \color{blue}{\iff} x=-2\;\text{or}\;1\;$

    $x = -2 \iff x \color{limegreen}{+3} = -2 \color{limegreen}{+3} \iff x + 3 = 1.$

    OR $\quad x = 1 \iff x \color{limegreen}{+3} = 1 \color{limegreen}{+3} \iff x + 3 = 4.$ Then how to deduce $\color{red}{(x+1)^2}$?

  2. $\color{red}{\sqrt{x+3}}=x+1 \color{blue}{\iff} x=1 $

    $x = 1 \iff x \color{limegreen}{+1} = 1 \color{limegreen}{+1} \iff x + 1 = 2.$ Then how to deduce $\color{red}{\sqrt{x+3}}$?

  3. $\color{red}{x^2 = x} \color{blue}{\iff} x=0\;\text{or}\;1$

    $x = 1 \iff x \color{limegreen}{\cdot x} = 1 \color{limegreen}{\cdot x} \iff x^2 = x.$ I have no question on this case, which works!

    But $x = 0 \iff x \color{limegreen}{\cdot x} = 0 \color{limegreen}{\cdot x} \iff x^2 = 0.$ Then how to deduce $\color{red}{x^2 = x}$?

  • I answered to your explicit question, e.g. How to deduce $\sqrt {x+3}$ ? If my interpretation of your question is correct. – lone student May 20 '23 at 09:36
  • I fail to understand what is confusing you. Simply substitute $-2$ and $1$ instead of $x$ and see that the equation $x+3=(x+1)^2$ becomes true. I feel that you think this is not good enough, but why do you think so? Yes, it is that simple. Of course, for the implication $\implies$ you need some tools, e.g. quadratic equation. The reason nobody mentions much the converse implication $\impliedby$ is precisely because it is completely trivial. –  May 20 '23 at 12:47
  • @lonestudent Thank you. You answered my question 2. Can you answer my questions 1 and 3 too please? –  May 20 '23 at 17:23
  • @user1176240 Sure . I will expand my answer . Likewise, I will answer your other $3$ questions. I left it at $2$. Because I wasn't sure if I understood your question correctly . – lone student May 20 '23 at 17:28
  • @user1176240 Please, tell me : Does my answer really answer your 2nd question? Does it really explain at least a little bit what you want to ask? – lone student May 20 '23 at 18:25
  • Ah, I see. To prove the converse implication $\impliedby$ you only care to prove the LHS is true when the RHS is true. That is why you need to test only two values of $x$. It is irrelevant whether the LHS is true when the RHS is false. Recall the truth table for implication: $$\begin{array}{c|c|c}p&q&p\implies q\\hline\bot&\bot&\top\\bot&\top&\top\\top&\bot&\bot\\top&\top&\top\end{array}$$ –  May 20 '23 at 22:22
  • This closely matches natural logic. If you want to check if the sentence "All fish live in the water" is true, you only need to check the fish. (And, if you find one that does not live in the water, then it is false; otherwise it is true.) You don't need to check any other non-fish animals, say mammals. (Whether they live in the water is irrelevant, and as a matter of fact some do, and some don't). The same as it is irrelevant, in your case, whether the LHS is true for the $x$ that is neither $1$ or $-2$. –  May 20 '23 at 22:28
  • @StinkingBishop Thank you. Your comments answer my question. Why did you comment, rather than writing an answer though? –  May 21 '23 at 20:45
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    It is because I was not sure I'd fully understood your concerns. Now that it seems I had, I may turn those comments into an answer. Quite a lot of people on this site jump into answering before fully grasping what exactly is bothering the asker. –  May 21 '23 at 21:59

5 Answers5

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  1. $$x=p \:\:\text{or}\:\:q$$ is abbreviation for $$x=p \quad\text{or}\quad x=q.$$
  2. The statement $$P(x)\impliedby \big(R(x)\quad\text{or}\quad S(x)\big)$$ implicitly means that whenever either $R(x)$ or $S(x)$ is true for some value of $x,$ $P(x)$ is also true for the same value. Logically, this means $$\text{for each }x,\big(R(x){\implies} P(x)\big)\quad\textbf{and}\quad\text{for each }x,\big(S(x){\implies} P(x)\big).$$

So, to prove $$\color{red}{x+3}=\color{violet}{(x+1)^2}\impliedby x=-2\:\:\text{or}\:\:1\tag1$$ just means to argue this:

  • for $x=-2,$ $$\color{red}{x+3}=1=\color{violet}{(x+1)^2};$$
  • while for $x=1,$ $$\color{red}{x+3}=4=\color{violet}{(x+1)^2}.\tag2$$

$x+3=\color{red}{(x+1)^2} \color{blue}{\iff} x=-2\;\text{or}\;1\;$

$x = -2 \iff x \color{limegreen}{+3} = -2 \color{limegreen}{+3} \iff x + 3 = 1.$

OR $\quad x = 1 \iff x \color{limegreen}{+3} = 1 \color{limegreen}{+3} \iff x + 3 = 4.$ Then how to deduce $\color{red}{(x+1)^2}$?

  1. Replace the logically incorrect or with and or but or while or somesuch.
  2. Are you just working in the reverse direction? Then display instead of . Not only is this less confusing for the reader, since you aren't paying attention to the forward direction you may inadvertantly assert false facts by displaying a stronger symbol than intended.
  3. Writing x+3 = 1+3 = 4 instead of x+3 = 1+3 , x+3 = 4 makes it easier for both the reader and yourself.

Addendum corresponding to the OP's new comment and edit

Doubtless, I know that the RHS's roots satisfy the LHS!

What you're saying here is exactly what it means to prove LHS ⟸ RHS: saying that the root $a$ satisfies the equation $x^3+7=11$ means that plugging in $x{=}a$ makes the equation true.

merely verifies the $\color{blue}\impliedby$ for merely 2 integers of $x$! We need to prove the $\color{blue}\impliedby \forall \, x.$

Let's make explicit the key point of the above answer: to prove $$\color{red}{x+3}=\color{violet}{(x+1)^2}\impliedby x=-2\:\:\text{or}\:\:1\tag1$$ means to argue that $$\text{for each }x,\big(x=-2{\implies} \color{red}{x+3}=\color{violet}{(x+1)^2}\big)\\\quad\textbf{and}\quad\text{for each }x,\big(x=1{\implies} \color{red}{x+3}=\color{violet}{(x+1)^2}\big).$$ In particular, say for $x{=7},$ we have $$\big(\text{False}{\implies} \text{False} \big)\\\quad\textbf{and}\quad\big(\text{False}{\implies} \text{False} \big),$$ that is, two true implications. So, statement $(1)$ is true for $-2$ and $1$ and trivially true for every other real number; that is, statement $\boldsymbol{(1)}$ is true for every real value of $\boldsymbol x.$ The word 'trivially' means that that portion of the proof is tacit; a succinct proof is more welcome than a tedious proof.

Hence our conclusion must express the red functions in terms of $x$!

Alright, then let's make explicit this line from above: $$\color{red}{x+3}=4=\color{violet}{(x+1)^2}.\tag2$$ This means $$\color{red}{x+3}=4\\\text{and}\quad\color{violet}{(x+1)^2}=4;\\\text{therefore}\quad \color{red}{x+3}=\color{violet}{(x+1)^2}.$$ We are allowed to read an equality from either side, due to the symmetric property of equality.

I don't understand your first sentence "Replace the logically incorrect or with and or but or while or somesuch."

I'm saying that there's a difference between asserting that statements $A$ and $B$ are true, and asserting that either statement $A$ or $B$ is true. In the former, both statements are true; in the latter it could be that $A$ is false while $B$ is true. (The former implies the latter, but not vice versa.) In our above proof, we do require that both statements be true.

To reiterate what I said before: (A or B) implies C is logically equivalent to (A implies C) and (B implies C), not to (A implies C) or (B implies C).

ryang
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    This is definitely the best answer for the OP. Just as simple as it needs to be. +1 – xyz May 20 '23 at 09:00
  • Many thanks! $\color{red}{1.}$ Your answer shall be easier to read, if you merge your addendum into your answer? For instance, rather than an addendum to clarify your original sentence, you can simply re-write your sentence "Replace the logically incorrect or with and or but or while or somesuch." $\color{red}{2.}$ Alas I can't accept 2 answers. I can't decide between yours and lone student's answer, but I chose lone student because he has less reputation. Hope this is OK! –  May 21 '23 at 20:52
  • Many thanks again. Let me contemplate whether to roll back to your title. You can retain all these comments, no need to delete them. –  May 22 '23 at 05:09
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To deduce $$f(x)=g(x)\impliedby x=a$$ in case 2, simply check that $$f(a)=g(a).$$

And to deduce $$f(x)=g(x)\impliedby (x=a\lor x=b)$$ in case 1 and 3, simply check that $$f(a)=g(a)\text{ and }f(b)=g(b).$$

  1. $f(x)=x+3,$ $g(x)=(x+1)^2,$ $f(-2)=1=g(-2),$ $f(1)=4=g(1).$

  2. $f(x)=\sqrt{x+3},$ $g(x)=x+1,$ $f(1)=2=g(1).$

  3. $f(x)=x^2,$ $g(x)=x,$ $f(0)=0=g(0),$ $f(1)=1=g(1).$

Anne Bauval
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  • Please, explain the downvote. – Anne Bauval May 20 '23 at 06:38
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    I did not downvote you. Thank you. Doubtless, daughter knows how to evaluate functions, and knows that $f(a)=g(a)\text{ and }f(b)=g(b)$ in each of your 3 equations. But why does this suffice? This feels inadequate, because you proved the $\Longleftarrow$ for merely 2 values, a & b. To prove $f(x)=g(x)\impliedby (x=a\lor x=b) ; \forall , x$ , mustn't $f(x), g(x)$ (the functions that I colored in red) appear in your final equation in terms of $x$? –  May 20 '23 at 07:50
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    I proved the $\impliedby$ not for merely 2 values but for all. $(\forall x)\Big[(x=a\lor x=b)\implies P(x)\Big]$ is rigorously equivalent to $P(a)\land P(b),$ because $(\forall x)\Big[x=a\implies P(x)\Big]$ is equivalent to $P(a).$ Maybe your misunderstanding is about the scope of the $\forall x.$ Beware it is the on whole formula inside my square brackets. Not only on one side of the $\impliedby.$ – Anne Bauval May 20 '23 at 08:08
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The deduction from $x=0$ to $x^2=x$, for example, is quite intuitive. After all, $0^2=0$. If you are wondering what the formal reasoning behind this deduction is, it is the axiom schemas of equality, specifically the axiom schema of substitution for formulas:

For all variables $x$ and $y$, and any formula $\varphi(x)$, if $\varphi'$ is obtained by replacing any number of free occurances of $x$ in $\varphi$ with $y$, such that these remain free occurances of $y$, then $$ x=y \implies (\varphi \implies \varphi'). $$

This does require some familiarity in logic to understand fully, but we can look at an example. Suppose we want to show that $x=0\implies x^2=x$. First, we have $x=0\implies 0=x$ (this is known as the symmetry of equality, which can be deduced from the axiom schemas of equality). From the axiom of substitution, we know that $$ 0=x \implies (0^2=0\implies x^2=x). $$ We know that $0^2=0$ is true, so $0^2=0\implies x^2=x$ is logically equivalent to $x^2=x$. Chaining together all those implications, we have $x=0\implies x^2=x$.

Now, you can apply the axiom schemas of equality to prove all the implications in question, but you can also show that $a=b\implies f(a)=f(b)$ and apply this instead to avoid all the hassles.

durianice
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  • Thank you. Undoubtedly, I know that $0^2 = 0.$ But why does this suffice? This feels inadequate, because you proved the $\Longleftarrow$ for merely one value, $x = 0$. To prove $x=y \implies (\varphi \implies \varphi')$ , mustn't $\varphi, \varphi'$ (the functions that I colored in red) appear in your final equation in terms of $x$? –  May 20 '23 at 07:52
  • @user1176240 Because you are proving $x^2=x$ for one value only, namely $x=0$. You are verifying that $x=0$ is a solution to $x^2=x$. If we say that $x=a$ is a solution of an equation, it means that when $x$ is replaced by $a$, the equation asserts a true statement. – durianice May 20 '23 at 09:06
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The explicit answer is to your questions :

The algebraic steps you used to construct the original equations are correct, however these algebraic steps do not allow us to derive the original equations .


For instance :

$$\begin{align}\color{red}{\sqrt{x+3}}&=x+1 \color{blue}{\iff} x=1 \end{align}$$

and

$$\begin{align}x = 1 &\iff x \color{limegreen}{+1} = 1 \color{limegreen}{+1} \\ &\iff x + 1 = 2.\end{align}$$

Then how to deduce $\color{red}{\sqrt{x+3}} \thinspace\thinspace\thinspace ?$


Recall that, you have :

$$ \begin{align}&\sqrt {x+3}=x+1\\\\ \iff &\begin{cases}x+3=(x+1)^2\\ x+1≥0\end{cases}\\\\ \iff &\begin{cases}x^2+x-2=0\\ x+1≥0\end{cases}\\\\ \iff &\begin{cases} x\in\{-2,1\}\\ x≥-1\end{cases}\\\\ \iff &x=1 \quad\tiny{\blacksquare}\end{align} $$

You can now reverse the steps :

$$ \begin{align}x=1&\iff\begin{cases} x\in\{-2,1\}\\ x≥-1\end{cases}\\\\ &\iff \begin{cases}x^2+x-2=0\\ x+1≥0\end{cases}\\\\ &\iff \begin{cases}x+3=(x+1)^2\\ x+1≥0\end{cases}\\\\ &\iff \sqrt {x+3}=x+1 \\\\ &\iff x+1=\sqrt {x+3} \quad\tiny{\blacksquare}\end{align} $$

Note that the following equivalence relations are also valid :

$$ \begin{align}x=1&\iff x+1=1+1\\ &\iff x+1=2\end{align} $$

As you can see, the algebraic steps are all consistent and there is no contradiction between them . However, depending on the result you want to achieve, i.e. for our purposes, it is important what algebraic steps you will take .

lone student
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  • Many thanks! $\color{red}{1.}$ How does $\begin{cases}x+3=(x+1)^2\ x+1≥0\end{cases} \iff \sqrt{x + 3} = x + 1$ ? Kindly show more steps? $\color{red}{2.}$ Shall you list out the steps for equations 1 and 3 please? Or are you doing so for merely equation 2? Is this your final answer? –  May 21 '23 at 20:48
  • @user1176240 I will expand my answer as soon as possible . I will cover all your concerns . – lone student May 21 '23 at 21:03
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    Many thanks!!! No rush. Take your time. –  May 21 '23 at 21:03
  • @user1176240 Thank you. I will comment you, after expanding . – lone student May 21 '23 at 21:06
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(Adapted from my comments.)

Let's analyse the situation on one of your examples: $x+3=(x+1)^2\impliedby x=-2\text{ or }x=1$.

It seems that the real question here is: obviously we can substitute $x=-2$ and $x=1$ into the LHS and see that the equation is satisfied. But, why is this enough? Why don't we need to substitute any other $x$ or provide some generic proof that would work for every $x$? It feels a bit like cheating, doesn't it?

In fact, it is not cheating and is completely legitimate. To prove the converse implication $\impliedby$, you only need to prove the LHS is true when the RHS is true. (Which in our case means only checking $x=-2$ and $x=1$.) It is irrelevant whether the LHS is true when the RHS is false.

Recall the truth table for implication: $$\begin{array}{c|c|c}p&q&p\implies q\\\hline\bot&\bot&\top\\\bot&\top&\top\\\top&\bot&\bot\\\top&\top&\top\end{array}$$

The entire implication is true when the premise $p$ is false. The only way for the implication to be false is when the premise $p$ is true and the conclusion $q$ is false.

This closely matches natural logic. If you want to check if the sentence "All fish live in the water" is true, you only need to check the fish. (And, if you find one that does not live in the water, then it is false; otherwise it is true.) You don't need to check any other non-fish animals, say mammals. Whether they live in the water is irrelevant (and, as a matter of fact some do, and some don't). The same as it is irrelevant, in your case, whether the LHS is true for the $x$ that is neither $1$ nor $−2$.