To prove that two functions $f$ and $g$ are equal, we've to prove three statements independently:
First: $f$ and $g$ have the same domain.
Second: $f$ and $g$ have the same co-domain.
Third: $f(x)=g(x)$ for every x belonging to their domain.
My doubt is, if we prove the third statement, doesn't that imply the other two? I think the first two statements are a direct result of the third statement.