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Let $t\geq 1$ be an integer number, and $p$ a prime number. What fraction can we set on the right side to have a correct inequality? $$\sum_{t\geq 1}\frac{t}{p^{t}-1}< \ldots$$ Thank you for any help.

Mary
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1 Answers1

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Copying the answer I gave in the comments:

If $p$ is prime and $t\in\mathbb{N}$, we have $p^{t-1}\leqslant p^t-1$, so $\dfrac{1}{p^t-1}\leqslant \dfrac{1}{p^{t-1}}$ .

Hence $$\sum_{t\ge1}\frac{t}{p^t-1}\le\sum_{t\ge1}\frac{t}{p^{t-1}}=\sum_{t\ge0}\frac{t+1}{p^t}=\sum_{t\ge0}\frac{t}{p^t}+\sum_{t\ge0}\frac{1}{p^t}=\frac{p}{(p-1)^2}+\frac{p}{p-1}=\frac{p^2}{(p-1)^2}\,.$$ To evaluate the last two series, see here for the first series and use the geometric series formula for the second series.

A. Goodier
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  • @ A. Goodier, Thanks a lot. I saw the previous (incorrect) inequality in a paper published in a math journal!!! Thank you for your help to correct it. Is it possible to replace $\frac{p}{(p-1)^{2}}$ instead of $\frac{p^{2}}{(p-1)^{2}}$ in your answer? – Mary May 03 '23 at 20:00
  • @Mary No, with $\frac{p}{(p-1)^2}$ the inequality does not hold. – A. Goodier May 03 '23 at 20:04
  • @ A. Goodier, unfortunately, in that paper it is assumed the inequality $\sum_{t\geq 1}\frac{t}{p^{t}-1}<\frac{p}{(p-1)^{2}}$ is true! – Mary May 03 '23 at 20:09
  • @Mary it must be wrong - you can check numerically that this is false for various values of $p$ – A. Goodier May 03 '23 at 20:11
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    @ A. Goodier, Thanks again for your time and your complete answers. – Mary May 03 '23 at 20:12