When I encountered this integral I couldn't imagine it having such an elegant closed form, and yet here it is:
$$\int_0^\infty \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1+t^x)}{(1+t)(1+x^2)}\ \mathrm{d}t\ \mathrm{d}x=\frac{\pi}{4}\ln^2(2)$$
Or at least this is what I conjectured looking at the numerical value of the integral. Wolfram wasn't able to catch the closed form, and neither was I.
My attempts in solving the integral included exchanging the order of integration, ending up with
$$\int_0^1 \frac{1}{1+t} \int_0^\infty \frac{\ln(1+t^x)}{1+x^2}\ \mathrm{d}x\ dt$$ but this doesn't look simpler. However, the inner integral can be reduced to $$\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln(1+t^x)}{1+x^2}\ \mathrm{d}x= $$ $$=\int_0^1\frac{\ln(1+t^x)}{1+x^2}\ \mathrm{d}x\ +\int_1^\infty\frac{\ln(1+t^x)}{1+x^2}\ \mathrm{d}x=$$ $$=\int_0^1\frac{\ln(1+t^x)}{1+x^2}\ \mathrm{d}x\ +\int_0^1\frac{\ln(1+t^{\frac{1}{x}})}{1+x^2}\ \mathrm{d}x$$
and here I tried to use Taylor series, but couldn't make progress.
Suggestions would be awesome.