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Let $(M_n)_{n\in \mathbb{N}}$ be a square integrable martingale and $(X_k)_{k\in \mathbb{N}}$ iid square integrable random variables with $\mathbb{E}X_1=1$. Show $M_n := \Pi_{k=1}^n X_k$ is a square integrable martingale and determine its quadratic variation.

I tried $$E(M_{n+1}|\mathcal{A}_n)=E(\Pi_{k=1}^{n+1} X_k|\mathcal{A}_n)=\Pi_{k=1}^nX_k E(X_{n+1}|\mathcal{A}_n)=M_n\cdot1$$ and $$EM_n^2=E((\Pi_{k=1}^{n}X_k)^2)=\Pi_{k=1}^{n}E(X_k^2)<\infty$$ So $M_n$ is a square integrable martingale and $M_n^2$ a submartingale. I wanted to use Doob decomposition: $$\langle M_n\rangle=\sum_{i=1}^n(E(M_i^2|\mathcal{A_{i-1}})-M^2_{i-1})=\sum_{i=1}^n(E(\Pi_{k=1}^{i}X_i^2|\mathcal{A_{i-1}})-\Pi_{k=1}^{i-1}X_k^2)= ...$$

I do not know how to continue... what can I do now? Thanks for any help!

Uhmm
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2 Answers2

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I thank Snoop for a comment and John Dawkins for his other answer which led me to elaborate a bit to show what can go wrong (and in fact was going wrong in my earlier versions):

Since the $X_k$ are i.i.d. \begin{align}\tag{1} \mathbb E[X_k^2]&={\rm Var}[X_1]+1=:\sigma^2+1\,. \end{align} The quadratic variation is the unique increasing predictable process $\langle M\rangle_n$ such that $M_n^2-\langle M\rangle_n$ is a martingale. For a discrete process predictable means that at $n$ it has to be ${\cal A}_{n-1}$-measurable.

Notation: \begin{align} A_n&=\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\sigma^2M_k^2\,,\tag{2}\\ B_n&:=\sum_{k=1}^n(M_k-M_{k-1})^2\,,\tag{3}\\ C_n&:=\mathbb E\Big[B_n\Big|{\cal A}_{n-1}\Big]\tag{4} \end{align}

  • When $\sigma>0$ only the two processes $M_n^2-A_n\,,M_n^2-B_n$ are martingales, and only $A_n$ is the predictable quadratic variation $\langle M\rangle_n\,$.

  • $B_n$ is not predictable.

  • $C_n$ is predictable but not necessarily increasing and does not make $M_n^2-C_n$ a martingale.

Proof. Using the i.i.d properties of the $X_i\,,$ \begin{align} \mathbb E[M_{n+1}^2|{\cal A}_n]&=\mathbb E\Big[\prod_{k=1}^{n+1}X_k^2\,\Big|{\cal A}_n\Big]= \mathbb E[X_{n+1}^2]\prod_{k=1}^nX_k^2=\sigma^2M^2_n+M^2_n\,.\tag{5} \end{align} Since taking the conditional expectation twice does not change the result, \begin{align} \mathbb E\Big[C_{n+1}\,\Big|{\cal A}_n\Big]&=\mathbb E\Big[B_{n+1}\,\Big|{\cal A}_n\Big]=\underbrace{\mathbb E\Big[(M_{n+1}-M_n)^2\,\Big|{\cal A}_n\Big]}_{(*)}+B_n\,.\tag{6} \end{align} Because $M_n$ is a martingale we can further develop the (*) term in (6): \begin{align} (*)&=\mathbb E\Big[M_{n+1}^2 \,\Big|{\cal A}_n\Big]-2M_n^2+M_n^2 \stackrel{(5)}{=}\sigma^2M^2_n\,.\tag{7} \end{align} Therefore, by (5) and (7), $$ \mathbb E\Big[M_{n+1}^2-C_{n+1}\,\Big|{\cal A}_n\Big]=M^2_n-\color{red}{B_n}\,,\tag{8} $$ that is, $M_n^2-C_n$ is $\color{red}{\rm not}$ a martingale.

The proof that $M_n^2-B_n$ is a martingale is the same. Use (5)-(7).

To see that $M_n^2-A_n$ is a martingale we only have to observe that, since $A_{n+1}$ is ${\cal A}_n$-measurable by definition, \begin{align} \mathbb E\Big[A_{n+1}\,\Big|{\cal A}_n\Big]&=\sigma ^2M_n^2+ A_n\tag{9} \end{align} trivially holds. Combining (5) with (9) shows that $M_n^2-A_n$ is a martingale. $$\tag*{$\Box$} \quad $$ Remark. The situation in the discrete case is a bit analogous to discontinuous processes. We know that for the Poisson process $N$ the predictable quadratic variation is $\langle N\rangle_t=\lambda t\,.$ But there is also the quadratic variation $$ [N]_t=\sum_{s\le t}(N_s-N_{s-})^2=\sum_{s\le t}(\Delta N_s)^2=\sum_{s\le t}\Delta N_s=N_t\tag{10} $$ which makes $N_t-[N]_t$ a martingale. But $[N]_t$ is not predictable.

Kurt G.
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  • Hello @Kurt, shouldn't we have $\langle M\rangle_{n+1}=\sum_{k\leq n}M_{k}^2(E[X_1^2]-1)$? Also shouldn't $\langle M \rangle_n$ be predictable? I may be mistaken though – Snoop Apr 25 '23 at 22:47
  • @Snoop Not at all. Thanks for making a very good point. I think in the discrete (like in the discontinuous) case there are two versions of QV. I am sure about the discontinuous case. We know that for the Poisson process $N$ the predictable QV is $\langle N\rangle_t=\lambda t$ and the QV $[N]t=\sum{s\le t}(N_s-N_{s-})^2=N_t$. Both make $N_t^2$ a martingale when subtracted. Do you want to formulate a second answer? – Kurt G. Apr 26 '23 at 01:15
  • Not necessary; just checking. – Snoop Apr 26 '23 at 05:07
  • Thank you for your answer! We just introduced Doob decomposition. "The quadratic variation is the unique increasing predictable process $\langle M\rangle_n$ such that $M_n^2-\langle M\rangle_n$ is a martingale." I have never heard of this. Why does this hold? – Uhmm Apr 28 '23 at 10:26
  • In fact: to call that a quadratic variation is more common in continuous time processes but what Nate Eldrege wrote in MO is sound. The Doob decomposition comes in two flavours. The one we use here is for submartingales which -according to Doob- can be uniquely decomposed into a martingale and an increasing predictable process. We know that $M_n^2$ is a submartingale. Therefore there is nothing wrong with calling its increasing predictable component a quadratic variation. ... – Kurt G. Apr 28 '23 at 11:39
  • ... This is exactly what we do in continuous time processes. – Kurt G. Apr 28 '23 at 11:39
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You've made a good start. To finish, by independence, $$ E(\Pi_{k=1}^{i}X_i^2|\mathcal{A_{i-1}})=\Pi_{k=1}^{i-1}X_i^2\cdot E(X_i^2|\mathcal A_{i-1}) = \Pi_{k=1}^{i-1}X_i^2\cdot E(X_i^2)=\Pi_{k=1}^{i-1}X_i^2\cdot (\sigma^2+1), $$ so $$ E(\Pi_{k=1}^{i}X_i^2|\mathcal{A_{i-1}})-\Pi_{k=1}^{i-1}X_k^2=\sigma^2\cdot \Pi_{k=1}^{i-1}X_k^2=\sigma^2M_{i-1}^2. $$ where $\sigma^2:=E(X_1^2)-1$. Therefore $\langle M\rangle_n=\sigma^2\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}M_k^2$.

John Dawkins
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