This is Example 15.9 of Tu's Introduction to Manifolds.
Ler $L$ be a line with irrational slope in $\mathbb{R}^2$ and $H$ the image of $L$ under the projection $\pi: \mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2/\mathbb{Z}^2$. I see how if $L$ has rational slope it will trace out a closed circle. Likewise, if $L$ has irrational slope I see how it will not ever close up and will instead "fill up" the torus by winding around infinitely often. I have a few questions based on this example.
- Tu says that
The image $H$ of $L$ under the projection $\pi$ is a closed curve if and only if the line $L$ goes through another lattice point, say $(m, n) \in \mathbb{Z}^2$. This is the case if and only if the slope of $L$ is $n/m$, a rational number or $\infty$; then $H$ is the image of finitely many line segments on the unit square.
I do not understand the last part of the above. Shouldn't $H$ just be a single closed loop? Why would $H$ be the image of multiple line segments and why must there be finitely many?
- In a exercise, he says
Suppose $H \subset \mathbb{R}^2/\mathbb{Z}^2$ is the image of a line $L$ with irrational slope in $\mathbb{R}^2$. We call the topology on $H$ induced from the bijection $f: L \rightarrow H$ the induced topology and the topology on $H$ as a subset of $\mathbb{R}^2/\mathbb{Z}^2$ the subspace topology. Compare these two topologies: is one a subset of the other?
He give the solution to this exercise as:
A basic open set in the induced topology on $H$ is the image under $f$ of an open interval in $L$. Such a set is not open in the subspace topology. A basic open set in the subspace topology on $H$ is the intersection of $H$ with the image of an open ball in $\mathbb{R}^2$ under the projection $\pi$; it is a union of infinitely many open intervals. Thus, the subspace topology is a subset of the induced topology, but not vice versa.
I did not fully understand the answer he gave. An alternate answer is given in this post. Going off the answer in that post, if we choose a ball $B \subset \mathbb{R}^2$ that intersects $L$, this will be homeomorphic to an open interval and so it is open. Thus $\pi(B \cap L)$ will be open in the induced topology. In the answer of the linked post, he says any neighborhood in the subspace topology of any point in $\pi(B \cap L)$ contains the image of points in $L$ that are not in $\pi(B \cap L)$. I assume this follows from the denseness of the image of $L$? How does this show that $\pi(B \cap L)$ is not open in the subspace topology? Furthermore, how do we know that reverse inclusion holds, that the subspace topology is necessarily a subset of the induced topology?