In my book, it is mentioned that the Quotient Field of the Integral Domain of Integers is the Field of Rational Numbers.
However, I have a confusion- the Quotient Field of $\mathbb{Z}$ would be the set of equivalence classes of ordered pairs $(a,b)$ (in $\mathbb{Z}$ where $b$ is non zero) under the relation that $(a,b)\sim(c,d)$ if and only if $ad = bc$.
In that case, wouldn't the Quotient Field of $\mathbb{Z}$ actually be the set of equivalence classes of every fraction $a/b$, where $b$ is non zero? I mean to say that, rather than individual rational numbers $(a/b)$ being elements of the quotient field, shouldn't an individual element of the quotient field be all fractions that simplify to $a/b$?
In that case, the quotient field will not be $\mathbb{Q}$, since its elements would be sets rather than numbers.