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Let $p \in [1, \infty)$ and $\lambda$ be the Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb R$. Let $L^p (\mathbb R)$ be the space of measurable functions $f:\mathbb R \to \mathbb R$ where $|f|^p$ is $\lambda$-integrable. Let $\mathcal I := \{1_I : I \text{ bounded open interval of } \mathbb R\}$. I'm trying to prove below density property, i.e.,

Theorem $\operatorname{span} \mathcal I$ is dense in $L^p (\mathbb R)$.

Could you have a check on my below attempt?

Proof Let $\mathcal S := \{1_S : S \in \mathcal B (\mathbb R) \text{ and } \lambda(S) < \infty\}$. Then $\operatorname{span} (\mathcal S)$ is dense in $L^p (\mathbb R)$. Fix $1_S \in \mathcal S$. It suffices to approximate $1_S$ in $L^p$ by an element in $\operatorname{span} \mathcal I$. Because $\lambda$ is outer regular, we can approximate $1_S$ in $L^p$ by $1_O$ where $S \subset O$ and $O$ is open in $\mathbb R$. Then we can approximate $1_O$ in $L^p$ by $1_{O'}$ where $O' \subset O$ and $O'$ is bounded and open in $\mathbb R$. It's well-known that any open subset of $\Bbb R$ is a countable union of disjoint open intervals. So $O' = \bigcup_{n} I_n$ where $(I_n)$ is a sequence of pairwise disjoint sets in $\mathcal I$. By continuity of measure from below, we can approximate $1_{O'}$ by a finite sum of elements of $(I_n)$. This completes the proof.

Analyst
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    It is much easier if you remember that Avery nonnegative measurable function is the pointwise limit of a monotone no decreasing sequence of simple functions. Then apply monotone convergence. – Mittens Apr 06 '23 at 16:16
  • @OliverDíaz Of course I remember that result, but I'm not sure if such a simple function is made from open intervals... – Analyst Apr 06 '23 at 16:22
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    Ah! I did not read your posting carefully. All the same, Continuous functions are dense in $L_p$ ($0<p<\infty$) This can be seen in many different ways:Lusin's theorem for example. The conclusion follows bu the fact that continuous functions are integrable.Integrals of continuous functions are approximated by Riemann sums (step functions) for the Riemann integral and the Lebesgue integral of a Riemann integrable function coincide. – Mittens Apr 06 '23 at 17:10

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