Let $f(x,y): \mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R} $. Is the following statement true? If:
- $\frac {\partial^2 f} {\partial y \partial x}$ is continuous at a point $A$ and
- $\frac {\partial f} {\partial y}$ exists at $A$
Then $\frac {\partial^2 f} {\partial x \partial y}$ is continuous at $A$.
If this is false, does requiring that $\frac {\partial^2 f} {\partial x \partial y}$ must exist at $A$ make it true?
I got into an argument with my college calculus teacher - it feels completely false to me, but I can't find a counterexample.
\partial
($\partial$) to use instead of\delta
($\delta$). – jjagmath Apr 06 '23 at 11:50