If $G$ is a cyclic group of order $n$ and $k\mid n$, then $G$ has exactly one subgroup of order $k$.
My attempt: $k\in \Bbb{N}$ is implicitly assumed. Let $G=\langle a\rangle$ and $|G|=|a|=n$. Since $k\mid n$, we have $n=kq$, for some $q\in \Bbb{N}$. Let $H=\langle a^q\rangle$. By theorem 4(vii) section 1.3, $|H|=\frac{n}{q}=k$. Suppose $\exists H\leq G$ such that $|H|=k$. By theorem 5 section 1.3, $H=\langle a^m\rangle$ where $m$ is least positive integer such that $a^m\in H$. Since $|H|=k$, we have $$|H|=|\langle a^m\rangle |=\frac{n}{m}=\frac{kq}{m}=k.$$ Which implies $q=m$. So $H=\langle a^q\rangle$. Thus $\exists ! H\leq G$ such that $|H|=k$. Is my proof correct?
Edit: I just realize, my proof is wrong. $|\langle a^m\rangle |=\frac{n}{m}$ if $m$ satisfy $m\mid n$ condition. In general $|\langle a^m\rangle |=\frac{n}{(n,m)}$. I have found a way to fix my proof. By theorem 6 section 1.3, $H= \langle a^m\rangle = \langle a^{(n,m)}\rangle$. So $|H|=\frac{n}{(n,m)}=\frac{kq}{(n,m)} =k$. Which implies $q=(n,m)$. Thus $H= \langle a^q\rangle$.