I'm messing around with exponentials & logarithms to deepen my familiarity with the basics.
It occurred to me to wonder if $f(x+y) = f(x)\cdot f(y)$ is sufficient to define an exponential, for $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^+$ (and the obvious flip for defining logarithms).
The one spot I'm stuck on is with showing that $(f(x))^\lambda = f(\lambda x)$.
It's straightforward to show that this holds for $\lambda \in \mathbb{Q}$. And I have a clear intuition that if $f$ is continuous then it must hold. (It's been a while since I worked with formal proofs of continuity, but the gist looks something like $f(\lambda x) = \lim f(\lambda_n x) = \lim f(x)^{\lambda_n} = f(x)^\lambda$.)
But it seems like I should be able to prove $f(x)^\lambda = f(\lambda x)$ directly, prove it via proving the continuity of $f$, or disprove it by finding a (discontinuous) counterexample.
And I haven't been able to make headway on any of that. The most I've done is noted that neither the characteristic function for the rationals nor a function that's one exponential (say $2^x$) on rationals and another (say $3^x$) on irrationals satisfy the definition of $f$.
So what am I missing?