As shown here (Does $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\arctan(\frac{1}{n^2})$ converge?), the series $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \arctan\frac{1}{n^2}$ converges. It is similar to $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \arctan\frac{2}{n^2}=\frac{3\pi}{4}$$ (Evaluate $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\arctan(\frac{2}{n^2})$?). A computer algebra system suggests that $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \arctan\frac{1}{n^2}=\arctan \frac{1-\cot\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{2}}\tanh\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{2}}}{1+\cot\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{2}}\tanh\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{2}}}.$$ If it's true, how can I prove it?
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4https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c7h1091440p4855222 and https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c7h494227p2773578 – Anne Bauval Mar 20 '23 at 13:44
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... and here on MSE: sum of arctangent – metamorphy Apr 04 '23 at 08:41