Let $f=X^4+X^3+X^2+X+1$. Determine the remainder of dividing $f(X^5)$ to $f(X)$.
My question is whether my thinking is correct in solving this problem, as I want to make sure I can apply the same logic for other problems like this one.
What I noticed is that $X^4+X^3+X^2+X+1 = 0 \iff X^5 = 1$. Then, I know that the remainder of $g : (X-\alpha)$ is equal to $g(\alpha)$, for $g$ an element of a field. Therefore: $$\text{remainder-of}\left(\frac{f(X^5)}{f(X)}\right) = \text{remainder-of}\left(\frac{f(X^5)}{X^4+X^3+X^2+X+1}\right) = \\[4ex] =\text{remainder-of}\left(\frac{\overbrace{X\cdot f(X^5)}^{g(X)}}{\underbrace{X^5-1}_{X-1}}\right)=g(1)=1\cdot f(1)=1\cdot(1+1+1+1+1)=5$$
So, is this correct/rigorous? Can the same logic be used for similar tasks, or it just so happens that this process works for this one problem?
solution-verification
question to be on topic you must specify precisely which step in the proof you question, and why so (this site is not meant to be a proof checking machine). – Bill Dubuque Mar 14 '23 at 19:03