I know that if one needs to use the Fourier inversion formula, one condition is to make sure the function $f$ and its Fourier transform $\hat{f}$ both lie in $L^1$. If now I have a function $f$ which lies in both $L^1$ and $L^2$, what kind of additional conditions can make its Fourier transform also lies in $L^1$? Thank you!
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You may want to consider Schwartz class. – Mhenni Benghorbal Aug 13 '13 at 00:52
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The Fourier transform of $f \in L^1$ is uniformly continuous so the issue is decay. Typically, the smoother $f$ is, the faster its Fourier transform decays. – Michael Aug 22 '13 at 14:56
2 Answers
If $f\in C^{n+1}(\mathbb R^{n})$ and $\partial^{\alpha}f\in L^{1}\bigcap C_{0}$ for $|\alpha |\leq n+1$, then $\mid \hat{f}(\xi) \mid \leq C (1+ \mid \xi \mid)^{-n-1}$ and hence $\hat{f} \in L^{1}(\mathbb R^{n})$. [For the proof you may see, Real Analysis by G. B. Folland, Chapter 8]

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It's comes from the Theorem 8.22e in G.B. Folland, Real Analysis Vol. 1 Modern Techniques and Their Applications, 2013. See also the comment in the begining of Section 8.4. – xan Jun 01 '22 at 15:54
From Suppose that $f \in L^1 $ and $\hat{f} \geq 0$. If $f$ is continuous in $0$ then $\hat{f} \in L^1$, another sufficient condition is that
[$f\in L^1, \hat f \geq 0$ and $f$ is continuous at $0$] $\implies \hat f \in L^1$.
Although the proof provided is about $f\in L^1(\mathbb R)$, it seems that due to nice properties of the Gaussian (e.g. Fourier transform on $\mathbb R^n$ of Gaussian function) the same is true for $f\in L^1(\mathbb R^n)$.
EDIT: I just learned from this answer that Bernstein gave another sufficient condition
[$f\in C_c(\mathbb R)$ and $\alpha$-Holder continuous for $\alpha>\frac 12$] $\implies \hat f \in L^1(\mathbb R)$.

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