In this question I don't understand how distinct maximal ideals have non-empty intersection? I mean since $P, Q$ are distinct does not imply that $P\cap Q=\varnothing$? Or the intersection has another meaning here?
Asked
Active
Viewed 544 times
3 Answers
3
Consider two arbitrary maximal ideals of $\mathbb{Z}$. What is their intersection?

Dune
- 7,397
-
for example $\langle 3\rangle\cap\langle 2\rangle=0$ – Ronald Aug 11 '13 at 17:18
-
2@Danial: No, in $\mathbb{Z}$ the intersection of these two maximal (prime) ideals is another principal ideal, $\langle 6 \rangle$. – hardmath Aug 11 '13 at 17:23
-
yes yes.. I understand it now. Thanks – Ronald Aug 11 '13 at 17:29
3
In this context distinct means just that $P\ne Q$, note that any ideal must always contain 0.

Alex J Best
- 4,578
- 1
- 18
- 35
1
You are confusing "distinct" with "disjoint." $P\cap Q=\emptyset$ is "$P,Q$ disjoint."

Thomas Andrews
- 177,126