The Problem : If $n$ identical balls are placed at random into $n$ cells, find the probability that exactly one cell remains empty.
A similar question was asked on this website : Probability of n balls in n cells, one remaining empty
So here's what I have done :
Let $c_i$ denote the number of balls in $i$th cell
Then
$c_1+c_2+\cdots+c_n=n \tag 1 $
So
Total number of outcomes $=$ Number of Solutions of equation $(1)$ [where $c_i =0$ is possible] $\displaystyle = {2n-1\choose n-1}$
Total number of favourable outcomes $=$ Number of Solutions of equation $(1)$ [ where one of $c_i=0$ and the rest are non-zero]$\displaystyle = \overbrace{n\choose 1}^{\text{Choosing } c_i =0}\underbrace{n-1\choose n-2}_{\text{Solutions to remaining}}$
Using this we get
$\displaystyle P(A)=\frac{n(n-1)}{2n-1\choose n-1}$
But some say this is wrong as all the solutions(which are the outcomes) aren't equally likely
So my question is why aren't they equally likely?