Hey I have this problem where I am stuck on solving it.
I Think it is very easy but I dont know how to proceed.
The Exercise is
Let $f, g, h ∈ L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )$.
To show is:
$\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} f(x, y)g(y, z)h(z, x) dλ_3(x, y, z) ≤ ∥f∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}∥g∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}∥h∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}$
So what I thought is $\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} f(x, y)g(y, z)h(z, x) dλ_3(x, y, z) ≤|\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} f(x, y)g(y, z)h(z, x) dλ_3(x, y, z)|\\ \leq\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} |f(x, y)g(y, z)h(z, x)| dλ_3(x, y, z) \\ =∥f(x, y)g(y, z)h(z, x)∥_{L_1(\mathbb{R}^2 )}$
and with Cauchy Schwarz we have
$∥f(x, y)g(y, z)h(z, x)∥_{L_1(\mathbb{R}^2 )} \leq ∥f∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}∥g∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}∥h∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}$
So the problem is that Cauchy Schwarz works only with two functions.
What I thought to do is than take $m(x,y,z):=f(x,y) \cdot g(y,z)$
and do
$∥f(x, y)g(y, z)h(z, x)∥_{L_1(\mathbb{R}^2 )}=∥m(x,y,z) \cdot h(z, x)∥_{L_1(\mathbb{R}^2 )} \\ \leq ∥m∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}∥h∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}=∥f \cdot g∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}∥h∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )} \\ \leq ∥f∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}∥g∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}∥h∥_{L_2(\mathbb{R}^2 )}$
I don't know if what I have done is correct. Can someone confirm it? If I have done any mistake can someone correct me?