By that, I mean the transformation formula for diffeomorphisms in integrals. Sadly, that proof was done very poorly in my analysis lecture and I want to see a rigorous proof.
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How much background do you have? Measure theory? Did you look at the classic textbooks? Spivak, Munkres, Rudin, Folland etc? I've also written an answer on this site (using measure-theoretic arguments). It seems to me you need to search more. – peek-a-boo Feb 25 '23 at 01:24
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Yes I have taken a measure theory course this semester. – TiimmyTurner Feb 25 '23 at 13:59
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See the link then. – peek-a-boo Feb 25 '23 at 19:42