I need help to prove that if $(G,\cdot)$ is a cyclic group generated by $g^n$, ($g\in G$, $n\in \mathbb{N}$), then $G$ is also generated by $g$.
I have the definition that $(G,\cdot)$ is a cyclic group if $G=\langle g \rangle$ for some $g\in G$ $\iff$ we can find $g\in G$ such that $\forall h \in G, \exists n \in \mathbb{Z}$, such that $h=g^n$. We then say that $g$ is a generator of $G$.
It follows that if $n \in \mathbb{N}$, then $ord_G(g)=\min\{n\mid g^n=e\}$. Then the following are equivalent:
- $ord_G(g)=n$.
- $\langle g \rangle = \{e,g,g^2,...,g^{n-1}\}$, with all $n$ distinct.
- $\left|\langle g \rangle\right|$ = n.
- $g^n=e$ and if $g^m=e$, then $n\mid m$.
Additionally, if $d=g^m$, then $ord(d)=\dfrac{n}{\gcd(n,m)}$
For my proof, I'm not sure if I need to prove that the cyclic subgroup generated by $\langle g \rangle$ is equivalent to $G$ itself, so that $g^n$ is then a generator of $G$. But then I'm using what I want to prove as an assumption, so, I believe my argument is for the converse. Also, I don't know if that is a correct way to go about this.
Alternatively, I'm wondering if I'm supposed to consider $\langle g \rangle$ as $\langle g^n \rangle$ instead. But I don't know the implications of that. Does this mean that $\langle g^n \rangle$ = $\{g^{n^n}\mid n \in \mathbb{Z}\}$? Or does that not follow from that?
Am I on the right track with either of those ideas? If not, I'd appreciate any sort of hint or starting point that could help me develop this further. Would going about this by method of contradiction be a better starting point?
I appreciate any feedback. I'm still very new to group theory and so these concepts haven't quite sunk in yet.