This question might be duplicate because of a representation theory question. I don't know representation theory enough so I didn't tried to check that section. Please notify.
I heard and experienced that if $s_1,s_2 \in Sym(n)$, then there exists a $k \in Sym(n)$ such that $k^{-1}s_1k = s_2 \iff s_1$ and $s_2$ has same cycle type.
I tried to proof this statement but in the middle of it someone told me it has really short proof so I started to trying to find it but I couldn't. I hope you can help me and find that short proof.
Thanks for any help.