So this girl tells me "Did you know that if $n$ is odd, then $n^2=8k+1$ for some $k\in \mathbb{Z}$?" And so I was like, "Really?" She said, "Yeah!" So I wrote this down:
If $n$ is odd, then $n=2m+1$, and so by squaring $n$ we get $$n^2=(2m+1)^2=8(\frac{1}{2}m^2+\frac{1}{4}m)+1,$$ which means that for any $m$ of the form $m=4t$ for some $t\in \mathbb{Z}$ we get that $$8(\frac{1}{2}m^2+\frac{1}{4}m)+1=8(\frac{1}{2}(4t)^2+\frac{1}{4}(4t))+1=8(8t^2+t)+1,$$ so for any value of $t$ we can find a value $m$ which makes $$8(\frac{1}{2}m^2+\frac{1}{4}m)+1=n^2,$$ for some $n$ that is odd, as desired.
My question here is, is this a good approach to proving what the girl said?