In Rudin, principles of mathematical analysis https://web.math.ucsb.edu/~agboola/teaching/2021/winter/122A/rudin.pdf p.68, he claims that whenever the root test is inconclusive then the ratio test is aswell. But lets consider the sequence
$1 + 1 + ...$
Clearly $\left|\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\right| = 1 \quad \forall n$ therefore the ratio test implies divergence but $$\limsup_{n \to \infty} |a_n|^{1/n} = 1$$ so the root test gives no information. Is this a counter example to Rudin's claim or am I missing something?
Edit: It seems that there is cofusion here around the definition of the ratio test. Rudin claims (p.66) that a sequence diverges if $$\exists n_0 \text{ such that } n>n_0\text{ implies } \left|\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\right| \geq 1.$$ There may be other definitions of the ratio test but with this definition is the example given a counter example?