How do you prove that the sine of 1 is not algebraic?
The sine of 1 is given by:
$$ \sin(1) = \frac{1}{1!} - \frac{1}{3!} + \frac{1}{5!} - \frac{1}{7!} \cdots = \sum_k \frac{(-1)^k}{(2k+1)!} $$
Proving that $\sin(1)$ is not an integer is very easy.
$\sin(1)$ must be in the range $[\frac{1}{1!}-\frac{1}{3!}, \frac{1}{1!}-\frac{1}{3!}+\frac{1}{5!}]$.
However, proving that it's not rational is slightly tricky, but I think the following argument works.
Lemma: every rational number can be written as $\frac{p}{q!}$ where $q$ is odd and there is a unique minimal $q$.
Every rational number can be written in the form $\frac{p}{q!}$ where $q$ is odd. As proof, suppose a rational number is of the form $\frac{a}{b}$, then it is equivalent to $\frac{a \frac{(2b+1)!}{b}}{(2b+1)!}$. We can then take divide both the number and the denominator by $(2b)(2b+1)$ and then $(2b-2)(2b-1)$ and then $(2b-4)(2b-3)$ and so on until the next step would make the numerator a non-integer.
End of proof of Lemma.
Suppose $\sin(1)$ is rational. Then it can be represented as $\frac{p}{q!}$ where $q$ is odd and minimal among such $q$.
$$ \frac{p}{q!} = \frac{1}{1!} - \frac{1}{3!} + \frac{1}{5!} - \frac{1}{7!} \cdots \pm \frac{1}{q!} \mp \cdots \\ p = \frac{q!}{1!} - \frac{q!}{3!} + \frac{q!}{5!} - \frac{q!}{7!} \cdots \pm \frac{q!}{q!} \mp R $$
In the above $R$ is a remainder.
All of the terms that precede $R$ are integers, thus their sum is an integer, call it $X$.
$$ p = X + R $$
Suppose the first term of $R$ is positive. $\frac{q!}{(q+2)!} - \frac{q!}{(q+4)!} \cdots$ is between $\frac{1}{(q+1)(q+2)}$ and $\frac{1}{(q+1)(q+2)} - \frac{1}{(q+1)(q+2)(q+3)(q+4)} = \frac{q^2-7q+11}{(q+1)(q+2)(q+3)(q+4)}$ and thus $R$ isn't an integer.
Similarly, if the first term of $R$ is negative, then $-\frac{q!}{(q+2)!} + \frac{q!}{(q+4)!}$ is between $\frac{-1}{(q+1)(q+2)}$ and $\frac{-q^2+7q-11}{(q+1)(q+2)(q+3)(q+4)}$ and thus $R$ is also not an integer when its first term is negative.
$X$ is an integer, and thus $p = X + R$ is not an integer. Therefore $\frac{p}{q!}$ is not an integral fraction, contradicting our hypothesis.
Trying to prove that this number is not algebraic is much harder.
Is there a straightforward way of proving it without invoking an absurdly powerful theorem?