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According to Lebesgue's Density Theorem:

Let $\mu$ be the Lebesgue outer measure, and let $A\subseteq\mathbb{R}$ be a Lebesgue measurable set. Then the limit: $$\lim_{h\to0}\frac{\mu\left(A\cap\left(x-h,x+h\right)\right)}{2h}$$ exists and equals to either 0 or 1, for almost every $x\in\mathbb{R}$.

Is there a known example of a set $A\subseteq\mathbb{R}$ for which the claim above doesn't hold?

If not, Is there a known proof of existance of such a set?

(A set like this, if exists, is clearly non-measurable by the theorem above).

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