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I was doing number theory in Algebra and I came across the following example:

$$\operatorname{ord}_{2^k}(5)= \frac{\varphi(2^k)}{2} = 2^{k-2}$$

I don't understand why that is. There are no limitations set on $k$, but I suppose it doesn't bring much to consider $k<2$.

Thanks in advance!

Edit: The group in question is $(\mathbb{Z}/2^k\mathbb{Z})^*$.

Edit: As J.W.Tanner mentioned in the comment below, this works only for $k>1$. I would still like to know why.

Bill Dubuque
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mikasa
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I claim for $k \ge 2$, $5^{2^{k-2}} \equiv 2^k + 1 \mod 2^{k+1}$. For $k=2$ it is true: $5^{1} = 1 \cdot 2^2 + 1$. If true for $k$, then for some $a = 0$ or $1$ $$ 5^{2^{k-1}} \equiv (a 2^{k+1} + 2^k + 1)^2 \equiv 2^{k+1} + 1 \mod 2^{k+2}$$

Robert Israel
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