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I am struggling to calculate this limit:

$$\displaystyle{\lim_{x \to 0^+}}{\frac{e^x + \frac{2\log(\cos(x))}{x^2}}{\sqrt{x}}}$$

I prefer not to use l'Hopital's rule, only when necessary. If possible, solving with the help of these limits:

$\displaystyle{\lim_{x \to 0^+}}{\frac{\log(x + 1)}{x}} = 1$, $\displaystyle{\lim_{x \to 0^+}}{\frac{e^x - 1}{x}} = 1$, $\displaystyle{\lim_{x \to 0^+}}{\frac{1 - \cos(x)}{x^2}} = \frac{1}{2}$.

Also when I tried solving it using only l'Hopital, it seemed to be very laborious, and also not sure if sufficient to solve it.

Also I prefer not using Taylor theorem and little/big o notation if possible at all.

Here's my (unsuccessful) attempt:

$$\displaystyle{\lim_{x \to 0+}}{\frac{e^x + \frac{2\log(\cos(x))}{x^2}}{\sqrt{x}}} = \displaystyle{\lim_{x \to 0^+}}{\frac{e^xx^2 + e^x2x + 2\log{\cos{x}}}{x^2\sqrt{x}}} = \frac{1}{5}\displaystyle{\lim_{x \to 0^+}}{\frac{e^x(x^2 + 2x) - 2tg{x}}{x\sqrt{x}}} = ...$$

Problem is, each time I use l'Hopital, it doesn't seem to simplify limit in any way.

Thanks.

meerkat
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    If you have tried to solve via l'Hopital already, then it'd be worth including that in your post to provide context – Semiclassical Jan 20 '23 at 16:37
  • I have tried to use Hopital couple times (3 times I think) but there was always e^x in numerator, so it seems like a dead end without any other simplification. – meerkat Jan 20 '23 at 16:40
  • Will post my attempt today. – meerkat Jan 20 '23 at 16:51
  • Out of interest, how do you know for example, that $\displaystyle{\lim_{x \to 0^+}}{\frac{1 - \cos(x)}{x^2}} = \frac{1}{2}$ without having used Taylor's thoerem or L'Hopital? – Adam Rubinson Jan 20 '23 at 16:58
  • @AdamRubinson You just apply l'Hopital twice on this limit, but let's assume these are known limits without verification. My question basically is if it's possible to solve this limit using basic limit rules and l'Hopital (without Taylor and little/big o notation for example). Also, why I've mentioned these limits is it's also possible to solve some limits by extracting these limits out and using limits multiplication rule, but not sure if is of help at all in this case. – meerkat Jan 20 '23 at 17:03
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    @AdamRubinson Just multiply and divide by $1+\cos x$ to obtain a limit involving $\sin x/ x$, which does not require Taylor or de l'Hospital. – dfnu Jan 20 '23 at 19:42

5 Answers5

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The known limits in the question are not enough to find the limit in the question. Some application of l'Hopital or Taylor's theorem will be needed. This answer shows how to compute the limit using l'Hopital.


The trick here to apply l'Hopital more easily is to compute two limits separately instead of one.

$$\begin{aligned}\lim_{x \to 0^+}\frac{e^x -1}{x}&\color{blue}{=\lim_{x \to 0^+}\frac{e^x}{1}}=1\\ \ \\ \lim_{x \to 0^+}{\frac{1 + \frac{2\log(\cos(x))}{x^2}}{x}} &=\lim_{x \to 0^+}\frac{x^2+2\log(\cos(x))}{x^3}\\ &\color{blue}{=\lim_{x \to 0^+}\frac{2x+2\frac{-\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}}{3x^2}}\\ &\color{blue}{=\lim_{x \to 0^+}\frac{2+2\frac{-1}{\cos^2(x)}}{6x}}\\ &=\lim_{x \to 0^+}\frac{-2\sin^2(x)}{3x\cos^2(x)}\\ &=\lim_{x \to 0^+}\frac{-2\sin^2(x)}{3x}\\ &\color{blue}{=\lim_{x \to 0^+}\frac{-4\cos(x)\sin(x)}{3}}\\ &=0 \end{aligned}$$ Adding both limits, we see that $\lim_{x \to 0^+}{\frac{e^x+ \frac{2\log(\cos(x))}{x^2}}{x}}=1$. Since $\lim_{x \to 0^+}\frac{x}{\sqrt x}=0$, the limit in the title is $0$.

Expressions in blue are obtained by l'Hopital.

Applying l'Hopital repeatedly is akin to using Taylor's theorem. However, Taylor' theorem is much clearer and handier. So, here is a piece of unsolicited advice. Get used to Taylor's theorem and apply it more!

Apass.Jack
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  • Excellent. Nice trick adding -1 + 1. Showing that if first limit is zero second is zero then sum of limits is zero. Thanks! – meerkat Jan 20 '23 at 20:27
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Note from Taylor's theorem that

$$\begin{align} \frac{2\log(\cos(x))}{x^2}&=\frac{2\log(1-2\sin^2(x/2))}{x^2}\\\\ &=-1+O(x^2) \end{align}$$

Then, we see that

$$\frac{e^x+\frac{2\log(\cos(x))}{x^2}}{\sqrt x}=\sqrt{x}+O(x^{3/2})$$

from which we conclude the limit is zero.

Mark Viola
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As the OP asks, an attempt to do it, using only \begin{align} \log(1+u)&=u+o(u),\\ e^x &= 1 + x + o(x),\\ \cos(x) &= 1 -\frac{x^2}{2} + o(x^2) . \end{align}

Now, as $x \to 0$, the best we can deduce is:
\begin{align} \cos x &= 1 - \frac{x^2}{2} + o(x^2) \\ \log \cos x &= \log(1-(1-\cos x)) = -(1-\cos x) + o\big(1-\cos x\big) \\ &= -1+\cos x + o\big(x^2\big) = -1 + \big(1-\frac{x^2}{2} + o(x^2)\big)+ o\big(x^2\big) \\ &=-\frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \\ \frac{2\log \cos x }{x^2} &= -1+o(1) \\ e^x &= 1+x+o(x) \\ e^x+\frac{2\log \cos x }{x^2} &= 1+x+o(x)-1+o(1) =o(1) \\ \frac{e^x+\frac{2\log \cos x }{x^2}}{\sqrt{x}} &= o(x^{-1/2}) \end{align} This is not enough to get the answer.

From this we can see how to get a counterexample. Instead of $\cos(x)$, use $c(x) := 1-\frac{x^2}{2}+x^{5/2}$. This still satisfies $c(x) = 1-\frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2)$, but

$$ \frac{e^x+\frac{2\log c(x) }{x^2}}{\sqrt{x}} \to 2 $$ and not $0$.

GEdgar
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$\lim_{x \to 0^{+}}\dfrac{1}{\sqrt x}\bigg(e^{x}+\dfrac{2\log(1+\cos x-1)}{(\cos x-1)}\cdot\dfrac{(\cos x-1)}{x^2}\bigg)$

$\implies \lim_{x \to 0^{+}}\dfrac{1}{\sqrt x}\bigg(e^{x}-1\bigg)$

$\implies \lim_{x \to 0^{+}}\dfrac{1}{\sqrt x}\bigg(\dfrac{e^{x}-1}{x}\bigg)\cdot x\implies\lim_{x\to 0^{+}}{\sqrt x}=0$

Note:

$(1)\;\lim_{x\to 0^{+}} \dfrac{\log(1+\cos x-1)}{(\cos x-1)}=1$

$(2)\; \lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\dfrac{(\cos x-1)}{x^2}=\dfrac{-1}{2}$

$(3)\;\lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\dfrac{e^{x}-1}{x}=1$

mathophile
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  • the first step is not correct or not properly explained in that way, we can't plug $1$ using that $\dfrac{2\log(1+\cos x-1)}{(\cos x-1)}\cdot\dfrac{(\cos x-1)}{x^2}\to 1$ – user Apr 04 '23 at 19:48
  • PS I meant $-1$ of course – user Apr 05 '23 at 00:27
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We have that

$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \left(e^x + \frac{2\log(\cos(x))}{x^2}\right)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \left(e^x -1+1+ \frac{2\log(\cos(x))}{x^2}\right)=$$

$$= \frac{e^x -1}{\sqrt{x}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \left(1+ \frac{2\log(\cos(x))}{x^2}\right)\to 0$$

indeed

$$\frac{e^x -1}{\sqrt{x}} =\sqrt{x}\cdot\frac{e^x -1}{x} \to 0$$

and

$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \left(1+ \frac{2\log(\cos(x))}{x^2}\right)=\sqrt{x} \left( \frac{x^2+\log(\cos^2(x))}{x^3}\right)\to 0$$

since using the results given here

$$\frac{x^2+\log(\cos^2(x))}{x^3}=\frac{x^2-\sin^2x+\sin^2x+\log(1-\sin^2(x))}{x^3}=$$

$$=(x+\sin x)\frac{x-\sin x}{x^3}+x\frac{\sin^2x+\log(1-\sin^2(x))}{\sin^4 x}\frac{\sin^4 x}{x^4}\to 0\cdot\frac 16+0\cdot \left(-\frac12\right)\cdot 1 =0$$

user
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