Currently I try to solve an exercise in which I need to prove that the variance of estimator a is smaller or equal to the estimator. I simplified the equation to the point down below.
$ n \geq \frac{(x_1+....+x_n)^2}{(x_1^2+.....+x_n^2)}$
I am stuck with the form above. I see that this statement in true by plugging numbers in it, however I find it hard to proof it.
Instead of only give the solution, would it be possible to get feedback on the approach of finding such a proof?