I'm came across the following proposition which confused me:
Is there a typo when both $ I = (g) $ and $ J = (g) $? And if not, why use the same notation to describe an ideal of two different polynomial rings?
I'm came across the following proposition which confused me:
Is there a typo when both $ I = (g) $ and $ J = (g) $? And if not, why use the same notation to describe an ideal of two different polynomial rings?