Define a permutation or autojection A as a function which bijects from a set X to itself.
Define a binary algebra or magma as a set with a binary operation on it.
Let un-subscripted Hindu-Arabic numerals to denote binary operations.
Conjecture: For every binary algera $N_{1}$=(N, 1) on a set N with with n elements, where n belongs to {2, 3, ...} (equivalently, n equals any natural number greater than 1), there exists an algebra $N_{2}$=(N, 2) (not necessarily distinct from $N_{1}$) such that if A indicates any autojection on N, then A qualifies as an automorphism between $N_{1}$ and some $N_{2}$ (not between every $N_{1}$ and every $N_{2}$).
Question 1: Is this conjecture correct?
Question 2: If correct, how does one prove this conjecture?
This seems true intuitively to me, and it comes as true by definition that A indicates an autojection. So, it would seem that only the homomorphic equation xy1A=xAyA2 would need verified. But, how does one do verify it here, or ensure that the homomorphic equation holds with A as an autojection?