We invoke a very interesting property of definite integrals given in MSE
If $f(f(x)) = x$ and $f(0) = 1$ then what is the value of $\int_0^1 (x - f(x)) ^{2n} dx$
if $f(f(x))=x, f(0)=1$, then $\int_{0}^1 (x-f(x))^{2n}dx=\frac{1}{2n+1}.$
Here, we choose a rare self inverse function: $f:[0,1] \to [0,1], f(x)=(1-x^k)^{1/k},k>0$
to get a very interesting result as $$\int_{0}^{1} [x-(1-x^k)^{1/k}]^{2n} dx=\frac{1}{2n+1}, k>0, n\in N \dots (*)$$
The question is: How else this integral (*) can be obtained?