Is it possible to define (ideally infinitely) differentiable functions $f_n : \mathbb{R}^n \times \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$ and $g_n : \mathbb{R}^n \times (\mathbb{R}^n \setminus \{0\}) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$ where $f_n(x, g_n(y, x)) = y$ and $f_n(x, y) = 0 \iff (x = 0 \vee y = 0)$?
It's possible for $n = 1$ using $f_1(x, y) = xy$ and $g_1(x, y) = \frac{x}{y}$.
By interpretation of $\mathbb{R}^2$ as complex numbers, it's also possible for $n = 2$ using $f_2(x, y) = \left( \begin{array}{c} Re (x_1 + x_2 i) (y_1 + y_2 i) \\ Im (x_1 + x_2 i) (y_1 + y_2 i) \\ \end{array} \right)$ and $g_2(x, y) = \left( \begin{array}{c} Re \frac{x_1 + x_2 i}{y_1 + y_2 i} \\ Im \frac{x_1 + x_2 i}{y_1 + y_2 i} \\ \end{array} \right)$.
$n = 4$ should also work using a similar approach using quaternions. But is it possible for the general case? I'm not sure whether this is related to this ([1]) question since it might not be necessary to have full algebraic characteristics in order to define $f_n$ and $g_n$.